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Pie
3 years ago
12

I wanna know about debit and credit full explanation ​

Business
2 answers:
BigorU [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

A debit is an entry made in an account. It either increases an asset or expense account or decreases equity, liability, or revenue accounts.

A credit is an entry  alsom made in an account. It either increases equity, liability, or revenue accounts or decreases an asset or expense account.

mihalych1998 [28]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

CREDIT vs. DEBIT

Explanation:

<em><u>Debit</u></em> :- A debit is an accounting entry that results in either an increase in assets or a decrease in liabilities on a company's balance sheet ... For instance , if a firm takes out a loan to purchase equipment , it would debit fixed assets and at the same time credit a liabilities account , depending on the nature of the loan .

<em><u>Credit</u></em> :- Generally defined as a contractual agreement in which a borrower receives something of value now and agrees to repay the lender at a later date—generally with interest .

<em>Main </em><em><u>Difference</u></em><em><u> </u></em>:- When you use a debit card, the funds for the amount of your purchase are taken from your checking account in almost real time . When you use a credit card , the amount will be charged to your line of credit , meaning you will pay the bill at a later date , which also gives you more time to pay .

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Krumple Inc. produces aluminum cans. Production of 12-ounce cans has a standard unit quantity of 4.4 ounces of aluminum per can.
yarga [219]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Production of 12-ounce cans has a standard unit quantity of 4.4 ounces of aluminum per can. During April, 304,000 cans were produced using 1,243,000 ounces of aluminum. The actual cost of aluminum was $0.17 per ounce and the standard price was $0.07 per ounce.

Direct material price variance= (standard price - actual price)*actual quantity

Direct material price variance= ( 0.07 - 0.17)*1,243,000= $124,300 unfavorable

Direct material quantity variance= (standard quantity - actual quantity)*standard price

Direct material quantity variance= (1,337,600 - 1,243,000)*0.07= $6,622 favorable

4 0
3 years ago
Which is a correct statement regarding sandwich prices,<br><br> based on the histogram?
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

Which is a correct statement regarding sandwich prices, based on the histogram? The distribution of sandwich prices is skewed left.

i hope this helps<3 :)

4 0
3 years ago
As you get closer to needing the money from an investment, what happens to your risk tolerance
Sedbober [7]

Risk tolerance gets lower and lower as you get closer to needing the money from your investment.

If you don't need the money for 50 years, you are more likely to take risks in the stock market or other higher risk investments in return for higher rewards. If you need the money tomorrow, you will not be willing to risk it all in the stock market because even though it <em>could </em>double, you might lose it all.

8 0
3 years ago
The Shirt Shop had the following transactions for T-shirts for Year 1, its first year of operations: Jan. 20 Purchased 400 units
viva [34]

Answer:

WA      1,682

LIFO      910

FIFO  2,260

Explanation:

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}Date&Cost&Units&Subtotal\\$Jan 20th&8&400&3200\\$April 21th&10&200&2000\\$July 25th&13&280&3640\\$Sept 19th&15&90&1350\\$Total&10.51&970&10190\\\end{array}\right]

We add the units purchase and the subtotal to get the total units available for sale.

Ending inventory physical units: 970 - 810 = 160 units

<u>Then, we calculate for each method:</u>

Weighted average:

cost of goods / available units = 10,190 / 970 =  10.51

160 units x 10.51 = 1,681.6‬

LIFO:

Ending inventory will be the oldest units:

160 units x 8 = 960

FIFO:

Ending inventory will be the newest units as the units are sold as soon as they come in

90 x 15 =  1,350

70 x 13 =     910

Total       2,260

5 0
3 years ago
CIRP. Jason Smith is a foreign exchange trader with Citibank. He notices the following quotes. Spot exchange rate SFr1.6627/$ Si
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Answer explained below

Explanation:

A.

For six months, rSFr => 1.50% and r$ => 1.75%.

Since the exchange rate is in SFr/$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is

F/S => [ (1 +  rSFr ) / ( 1 + r$) ]

then we can also say

F/S *( 1 + r$) => (1 +  rSFr )

Now Left side => F/S *( 1 + r$) => [ ( 1 + 6.558) / ( + 1.6627) ] * (1 +0.0175)

Left side => 1.0133

and Right side =>  (1 +  rSFr ) => 1.0150

Since the left and right sides are not equal, IRP is not holding.

B and C.

Since IRP is not holding, there is an arbitrage possibility.

As 1.0133 < 1.0150,

we can say that the EuroSFr quote is more than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. And, we can also say that the Euro$ quote is less than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. Therefore, the arbitrage strategy should be based on borrowing in the Euro$ market and lending in the SFr market. The steps are as as follows. -

Borrow $1000000 for six-months at 3.5% per year and then we will pay back

=> $1000000 * (1 + 0.0175) => $1,017,500 six months later.

Convert $1000000 to SFr at the spot rate to get SFr 1662700.

Lend SFr 1662700 for six-months at 3% per year. Will get back

=> SFr1662700 * (1 + 0.0150) => SFr 1,687,641 six months later.

Sell SFr 1687641 six months forward. The transaction will be contracted as of the current date but delivery and settlement will only take place six months later. So, sixmonths later exchange

SFr 1,687,641 for => SFr 1687641 ⁄ SFr 1.6558/$ => $1,019,230.

The arbitrage profit six months later is 1019230 - 1017500 = $1,730

6 0
3 years ago
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