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Alexxandr [17]
3 years ago
15

Show that if f(n) is O(g(n)) and d(n) is O(h(n)) then f(n) + d(n) is O(g(n) + h(n)).

Mathematics
1 answer:
GaryK [48]3 years ago
3 0
f(n)\in\mathcal O(g(n)) is to say

|f(n)|\le M_1|g(n)|

for all n beyond some fixed n_1.

Similarly, d(n)\in\mathcal O(h(n)) is to say

|d(n)|\le M_2|h(n)|

for all n\ge n_2.

From this we can gather that

|f(n)+d(n)|\le|f(n)|+|d(n)|\le M_1|g(n)|+M_2|h(n)|\le M(|g(n)|+|h(n)|)

where M is the larger of the two values M_1 and M_2, or M=\max\{M_1,M_2\}. Then the last term is bounded above by

M(|g(n)|+|h(n)|)\le2M\max\{|g(n)|,|h(n)|\}

from which it follows that

f(n)+d(n)\in\mathcal O(\max\{g(n),h(n)\})
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x=y^2-17y

Add square of half of coefficient of y , i.e., \left(\dfrac{-17}{2}\right)^2 on both sides,

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x+\left(\dfrac{17}{2}\right)^2=\left(y-\dfrac{17}{2}\right)^2        [\because (a-b)^2=a^2-2ab+b^2]

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Hence, option D is correct.

Note: In all the options square of \dfrac{17}{2} is missing in restricted domain.

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