<u>Explanation:</u>
In the given case it is valid contract as there is time, promise, benefit and obligation to do thing. But verbal contracts are difficult to prove. Stan and Byron have a verbal contract which is a promise for 10 days and the contract has exchange of goods for $600. Offer is made by Byron but the acceptance is not yet given by Stan.
Here only the offer is made and it is not yet accepted by Byron. here Stan has revoked the offer through letter so the revoke has been communicated to the other party through letter. So in this case there is no breach of contract as the contract was clearly revoked by Stan through his letter.
Answer:
The change will impact all 300 locations. The letter should be written to entire staff of the SpaceX.
Explanation:
To: All Staff SpaceX Team
Subject: Change over details (First Launch)
As you all are already aware about the implementation of new software named First Launch . The software installation run will start from March 1, 2021 at 9:00 a.m. Every accountant receiving the new product will require to install the software within 48 hours. Failure to do will result in expiry of the password which will require resending the software. After installation all accountants must restart the computer.
This change will affect all 300 locations across the United States. The changeover will result in improved efficiency, increase in security and there will be more transparency.
If there is any concern or query regarding this change feel free to write the team implementing the change.
Regards,
Director Accounts.
Answer:
The question is incomplete. However, kindly find below the complete version of the question:
Question
Jack and Diane own Enviromax, a monopolistically competitive firm that recycles paper products. (1.)If Enviromax wants to maximize profit, what price would they charge? (2).What is their profit per unit if they are operating at the profit maximizing output?
Answer / Explanation
(1) First before we continue to answer this question, let us define what a monopoly is: This is a kind of market situation where the sole production or manufacturing of a product have been given to a single entity.
The graph attached below will give us a proper understanding and illustration of the answer.
Where: MR in the graph is defined as the additional revenue obtained when producers produce 1 more unit of good and the AR refers to the total revenue divided by the amount of output produced which is essentially the price of one unit of good.
MC refers to the additional cost incurred by producers when they produce 1 more unit of good and is upwards sloping due to increasing opportunity costs of production.
Noting that since the firm is a monopolistic type, the MR curve is lower than the AR curve because if the firm wants to sell an additional unit of output it will have to lower the successive price. This is unlike the case of a firm operating in a PC where it takes the price as given and hence has no ability to set prices. it should also be noted that profit maximizing for all firms (whether PC or non-PC) occurs at MC=MR. This is because if MC>MR this means the additional cost of producing this unit of good > additional revenue obtained from selling this unit of good and is hence not profit maximizing. If MC<MR, this implies that the firm should not stop at producing this unit of good because it will be forgoing the additional net revenue (profit) should it do so. Hence all firms will produce at the point where MC=MR.
(2) Now referring back to the graph, the profit-maximising point where MC intersects MR hence occurs at output Q. The firm will hence produce Q and hence price at P according to the AR (DD) curve.
In the graph below, since AR > AC at the profit maximizing level, this implies that per unit revenue >
per unit costs and the firm makes a supernormal profit (defined as what excess profit above what is needed to keep firms in production which is normal profit) of the shaded area. If the firm was operating in a perfectly competitive market however, then the profit maximizing point would occur at AR =MC (since AR=MR in a PC market) and the firm would be producing at Qpc and Ppc
The main purpose of performance appraisal is to furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality.
Therefore option C is correct
<h3>What is Performance appraisal?</h3>
Performance appraisal can be described as the periodic and systematic evaluation of the job performance of an employee and its subsequent documentation documented and evaluation in other to provide verifiable evidence to the management of an organization on the strengths and weaknesses of its employees.
The idea of performance appraisal should be viewed as a career enhancing prospect. Managers should endeavor to appraise their staff truthfully and honestly in other to bring about a healthy working environment.
Learn more about Performance appraisal at brainly.com/question/7595736
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Answer: No. It does not violate Title VII if Cynthia's employer does not grant her the leave.
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Cynthia, requested a two-week leave from her employer to go on a religious pilgrimage and that the pilgrimage was not a requirement of her religion, but Cynthia felt it was a calling from God.
Based on the scenario, Title VII is not violated if Cynthia's employer does not grant her the leave. According to the court, when an employee says that based on his or her religious belief, he or she is required to go to a pilgrimage, the person has to prove beyond reasonable doubt.
In this case, her church which is the Roman Catholic didn't call for a pilgrimage as it was her personal choice. Therefore, Title VII is not violated if Cynthia's employer does not grant her the leave.
