Answer:
Investment Opportunity 1 has a few risks.Though it invests in stocks, it makes consistent profits. It lacks volatility because managers carefully select stocks with long-term earning potential. Investment Opportunity 2 risks are related to changing interest rates, which can cause bonds to make less money for bondholders. Also, it may be affected by inflation, and it carries the risk of default: if a city or county government fails to make its bond payments, then the bondholder loses money. Both companies tell you the risks, and they have the same level of it. Investment Opportunity 1 has three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years.The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Investment Opportunity 2 also provided three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years. The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Both say the potential returns of each investment, but investment opportunity 1 hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years is not as steady as investment opportunity 2. Investment Opportunity 2 is the fraudulent one because its percentage of return is better than investment opportunity 1. Both are with large companies that are almost just alike but investment opportunity 2 has a better rates of return. The first one serves thousands of customers and specializes in managing stocks and mutual funds. The second firm serves thousands of customers, and it specializes in managing mutual funds that invest in bonds.
Explanation: Hope this helps this is what I used for <u>Edge 2020</u> ^-^. Also I do not take credit for this answer, but I feel like this is a very well and detailed answer.
Answer:
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Explanation:
Answer:
Option B, an overstatement of net income, is the right answer.
Explanation:
Option “B” is correct because when the prepaid expenses occur then it is recorded in the balance sheet on the asset side and the cash will be reduced by the same amount. However, if the prepaid expenses have not been adjusted then it will show the overstatement of net income because cash has been gone so actual cash will be lower than the recoded cash. Thus, option B is right.
The net impact on its net income in 2020 resulting from a fluctuation in the value of the won is : $250 decrease in net income.
First step is to calculate the Discount on forward contract
Discount on forward contract=[($0.0035 − $0.0034) × 10 million
Discount on forward contract=$0.0001 × 10 million
Discount on forward contract= $1,000
Second step is to amortized the Discount on forward contract
Amortization of discount on forward contract=$1,000 / 4 months
Amortization of discount on forward contract=$250 per month
Based on the above calculation foreign exchange loss of the amount of $250 will be recognized on December 31, 2020.
Therefore the net impact on its net income in 2020 resulting from a fluctuation in the value of the won is a decrease of $250.
Learn more here:<em> brainly.com/question/19353936</em>
