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SVETLANKA909090 [29]
2 years ago
8

The following two assets and payout data are given​ below: Asset A​: Pays a return of​ $2,000 20% of the time and​ $500 80% of t

he time. Asset B​: Pays a return of​ $1,000 50% of the time and​ $600 50% of the time. If both assets can be acquired for the same​ price, as a​ risk-averse​ investor, you would prefer
Business
1 answer:
andrew-mc [135]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

I would prefer Asset B

Explanation:

A risk averse investor is the one who prefers lower amount of returns with known or specific risks instead of the higher amount of returns with unknown risks. So, from among the various level of risks, the investor will be preferring the alternative with the least interest.

So, in this case,

In Asset A: pay a return of $2,000 and at 20% of time and the $500 at 80% of time.

In Asset B: pay a return of $1,000 and at 50% of time and the $600 at 50% of time.

So, I would prefer, Asset B as it has low return but have a known risk that is of 50 -50.

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Classified ads in newspapers
ZanzabumX [31]

A.are a good source of referrals.

5 0
2 years ago
Gary’s Company produces high quality shirts. Shirts must be well made because of frequent washings. Currently, Gary sells 10,000
grin007 [14]

Answer:

Unless the capacity is expanded or some of the production gets outsource, the offer is not convenient.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Currently, Gary sells 10,000 shirts at $60 each with the capacity to produce 11,000 shirts. Gary is considering a special order for 1,800 shirts for $40.

Gary has the following costs:

Unit Costs $200,000

Facility Costs $140,000

If Gary accepts the special order, they will incur an additional $2 per shirt in foreign currency transaction costs.

Because it is a special offer and there is unused capacity, we will not have into account the fixed costs.

variable cost per unit= (200,000/10,000) + 2= $22

Effect on income= (40 - 22)*1,800= $32,400

We have to take into account the loss of not selling 1,000 units.

Effect on income= 1,000*40= $40,000

Total effect= 32,400 - 40,000= $7,600

Unless the capacity is expanded or some of the production gets outsource, the offer is not convenient.

6 0
3 years ago
At December 31, Amy Jo's Appliances had account balances in Accounts Receivable of $309,000 and $600 (credit) in Allowance for U
MissTica

Answer:

Bad debt expense  $ 14.850

Explanation:

Initial Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 309.000  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 600  

Should be 5% of the Accounts Receivables    

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 15.450

We must calculate the difference between the actual balance and the must be balance.

Adjustment entry

Bad debt expense  $ 14.850  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 14.850

END Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 309.000  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 15.450  

5 0
3 years ago
If the fed wishes to increase the money supply then it should: increase the required reserve ratio. increase the discount rate.
charle [14.2K]
The Fed can<span> influence the </span>money supply<span> by modifying </span>reserve requirements, which is the amount of funds banks must hold against deposits in bank accounts. ... Inopen<span> operations, the </span>Fed<span> buys and sells </span>government securities<span> in the </span>open market.If the Fed wants to increase the money supply<span>, it buys </span>government bonds<span>.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
A company had an unadjusted Cost of Goods Sold of $1,690,000. The company closes its underapplied or overapplied overhead to Cos
lakkis [162]

Answer:

"$1,673,750" is the appropriate answer.

Explanation:

The given values in the question are:

Applied overhead,

= $666,250

Actual overhead,

= $650,000

Unadjusted cost,

= $1,690,000

Now,

The overapplied overhead will be:

= Applied \ overhead-Actual \ overhead

= 666,250-650,000

= 16,250 ($)

hence,

The goods sold's adjusted cost will be:

= Unadjusted \ cost-Overapplied \ overhead

= 1,690,000-16,250

= 1,673,750 ($)

8 0
2 years ago
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