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AleksandrR [38]
3 years ago
15

A firm is considering the acquisition of a new machine. The base price is $85,000 and it would cost $15,000 to install. The mach

ine is MACRS 3 year class property and it will be sold after 3 years for $17,000. The machine would also require an increase in net working capital of $10,000. The machine is expected to increase before tax revenues by $40,000 per year. This firm is in a 34% marginal tax bracket. MACRS 3 year factors are 33%, 45%, 15%, and 7% for years 1 through 4 respectively. What is the initial (year 0) net cash outflow. Group of answer choices
Business
1 answer:
Naddik [55]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Cash flow year 0   (110,000)

or in other way to express it: a cashoutflow for $110,000

Explanation:

Initial net cahs outflow

this will be the acquisition of the machine cost plus the increase in the working capital for the company

machine cost: all cost necessary for acquire the machien and get it operational

supplier list price        85,000

installation cost       <u>    15,000</u>

total cost                     100,000

Increase in Working Capital Cost 10,000

As these are cost they are negative so we have a cashouflow

Total cashflow    (110,000)

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vivado [14]
Red yellow and blue because when they are all moved at a high speed they combine to make white
8 0
4 years ago
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Bolster Soda had an accounts receivable turnover ratio of 9.9 this year and 11.0 last year. Castor Soda had a turnover ratio of
Bess [88]

Answer:

This implies Bolster Soda collects receivables more effectively and quickly than Castor Soda in the two years.

Explanation:

The accounts receivable turnover ratio refers to an accounting ratio that is used to show the how effective a firm is in collecting the receivables or money its clients are owing it.

This implies that accounts receivable turnover ratio is used to determine the extent to which a firm ie effectively managing the credit it gives to customers and how quickly the firm collects that that short-term debt.

The formula for calculating the accounts receivable turnover ratio is as follows:

Accounts receivable turnover ratio =  Net credit sales / Average accounts receivable

When the accounts receivable turnover ratio is high, it implies that the company is efficient is collecting debt and a high percentage of its cutomers are paying up their debts.

The account receivable turnover ratios in the question therefore imply Bolster Soda collects receivables more effectively and quickly than Castor Soda in the two years.

3 0
3 years ago
A project has cash flows of −$161,900, $60,800, $62,300, and $75,000 for Years 0 to 3, respectively. The required rate of return
Degger [83]

Answer:

Therefore, the internal rate of return is lower than the expected return, for this the project must be rejected

Explanation:

Solution

Given that

The cash flow of a project consists of the following amount from year 0 to 3 = −$161,900, $60,800, $62,300, and $75,000

The rate of return required = 13%

Now,

Let the Internal rate of return be y%

Thus,

At internal rate of return, the value of present inflows is the same as the value of present outflows.

So,

Internal rate of return = Value of present inflows = Value of present outflows

=161900 =60800/1.0y +62300/1.0 y ^2 + 75000/ 1,0 y^3

Therefore, y = internal rate of return 10.41%

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Verizon Wireless has hired you as a consultant to determine what price it should set for calling services. Suppose
goldfiish [28.3K]

Answer:

The two optimal two part price that would be suggested to Verizon is Unit per Fee = $1 and Lump Sum fee or fixed fee = $99

Explanation:

Solution

For us fully maximize profit under two part price It should gives  that amount of wireless service at which P = MC and and also charge Lump sum fee or fixed fee equals to the consumers surplus that consumer will have.

Now,

marginal cost= MC  = 1 and P = 100 - 25Q.

Thus,

P = MC => 100 - 25Q = 1 => Q = 2

Then,

The Consumer surplus is the above area Price of  line which is (iP = 1) and below is the curve of demand

Now,

P = 100, When Q = 0 The Consumer surplus = (1/2)*base*height

= (1/2)*(100 - 1)*2 = 99

Therefore, Fixed fee or The Lump Sum fee = 99

However, the  Optimal two part pricing is denoted by:

The Unit per Fee = $1 and Lump Sum fee or fixed fee = $99

4 0
3 years ago
Periodic outlays for inventory control software at Baron Chemicals are expected to be $150,000 immediately, $200,000 in 1 year,
Nady [450]

Answer:

Total present value=$617,523.24

Explanation:

The formula for calculating continuous compounding is given as follows

F=P(e^it)

F=future value

P=present value

i=interest rate

t=time involved i.e 1 year or 2 year

e=Mathematical constant=2.7183

By applying above mentioned formula, the present value of inventory control software by Baron Chemicals shall be calculated as follows:

Present value of year 2 Cash flow= $286,555.76

($350,000/e^10%*2)

Present value of year 1 Cash flow=  $180,967.48

($200,000/e^10%*1)

Present value of year 0 Cash flow= $150,000

Total present value=$617,523.24

7 0
3 years ago
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