Number one is the 1st answer and number 2 is D
There will be 360-324 or 36 inches of fringe left over. This is equal to 3 feet of fringe left over.
Is that number times itself
Answer:
The formula for the final velocity, bf in terms of initial velocity, v1, acceleration, a, and time is given as
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:
To Find:
bf = ?
Solution:
Acceleration:
Acceleration is defined as the ratio between the change in velocity of an object and the time it takes for the object to change the velocity.
In formula, this is written as:
Where,
'a' is the Acceleration.
'vf' is the final velocity
.
'vi' is the initial velocity.
't' is the time it takes for the object to accelerate from vf to vi
Here it is given as
So,
Where,
'a' is the Acceleration
'bf' is the final velocity
.
'v1' is the initial velocity.
't' is the time it takes for the object to accelerate from bf to v1.
On Solving the above equation 'bf' we get
....As required
Answer:
Option (2)
Step-by-step explanation:
Relation between fee charged by piano instructor and the lessons has been shown in the graph.
Two points passing through the line are (2, 80) and (4, 140)
Let the one time fee = $b
Hourly charges for the lessons = $x
Equation of the line will be,
y = mx + b
Slope of the line 'm' =
m =
m =
m = 30
y = 30x + b
For point (2, 80),
80 = 30(2) + b
b = 80 - 60
b = 20
Therefore, one time fee charged by the instructor = $20
Since instructor put a coupon to waive off the one time fee, value of the coupon will be = $20
Option (2) is the answer.