F(n) = 75*1/5n
This is because the base value would be 75 and it is divided by 5 each part of the sequence.
f(0) = 2(3)(0) = 0 ⇒ (0, 0)
f(1) = 2(3)(1) = 6 ⇒ (1, 6)
<u>rate of change from x = 0 to x = 1</u>
=
=
= 6
******************************************
f(2) = 2(3)(2) = 12 ⇒ (2, 12)
f(3) = 2(3)(3) = 18 ⇒ (3, 18)
<u>rate of change from x = 2 to x = 3</u>
=
=
= 6
*****************************************
Since it is the same line, they will have the same slope (aka rate of change).
Answer: I think b
Step-by-step explanation:
I think it is 3200 because you divide 8000 by 5 then multiply that by 2
So the question here is just simply what percentage is 10 out of 50 correct? You would basically just do 10/50 times 100 which will give you 20 percent as your answer.