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3 years ago

Can anyone help me solve the problem please and thanks.

Mathematics

1 answer:

grigory [225]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

(A-1)/rt=P

Step-by-step explanation:

A= 1 + Prt Subtract 1 from both sides

-1 -1

A - 1 = Prt Divide rt on both sides

(A-1)/rt = P

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The average length of the dragon used in the performance is 12 feet. The dragon is divided into 9 sections. How long is each sec

yawa3891 [41]

Answer:

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3 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

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3 years ago

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tatuchka [14]

12 the answer is 12 I know it

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3 years ago

5/6 = 1/3+d and x/x is a fraction

Alik [6]

$\dfrac{1}{3}+d=\dfrac{5}{6}\qquad|-\dfrac{1}{3}\\\\d=\dfrac{5}{6}-\dfrac{1}{3}\\\\d=\dfrac{5}{6}-\dfrac{1\cdot2}{3\cdot2}\\\\d=\dfrac{5}{6}-\dfrac{2}{6}\\\\d=\dfrac{5-2}{6}\\\\d=\dfrac{3}{6}\\\\d=\dfrac{3:3}{6:3}\\\\\boxed{d=\dfrac{1}{2}}$

7 0

3 years ago

koban [17]

Answer: It would be 4b+44

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the distributive property! so a(b+c)=ab+ac

In this case–4b+44!

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers