Answer:
The question is missing the options which are below:
A Real risk-free rate differences.
B Tax effects.
C Default risk differences.
D Maturity risk differences.
E Inflation differences.
The correct answer is option C,default risk differences.
Explanation:
Default risk is the increase in return given to an investor to compensate the investor for the likely losses that may arise due to the inability of the borrower to make funds available to the investor on the maturity date or even in required amount.
Different debt instruments have different default risk depending on their credit rating as rated by international rating agencies.Such rating is a function of many factors,which includes:
Balance sheet position
Profitability
Liquidity strength of the company
Macro-economic factors and some others.
Liquidity refers to the ability of the company to settle obligations such as repayment of bonds and interest when due.
Invariably,liquidity has a higher impact in determining credit rating as well as default risk of an instrument.
Answer:
competition based pricing
Explanation:
When a company engages in a competition based pricing strategy, they will set the price of their products or services taking based on the price of their main or direct competitor. The product or service provided by the competitor is used to benchmark both the price and quality of the goods and services offered by the company.
For example, Coca Cola products are used as a price reference for all the soda products sold by other companies.
Answer:
each policy will pay $25,000 of the loss
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that the each policy will pay $25,000 of the loss. This is an equal share for each policy and is due to them having the pro rata liability clause. This clause states that a policy is only liable for an equal percentage of the loss if the insurer has other policies from other companies. As in this case.
Answer: Esther does not recognize any gain or loss on the distribution and her remaining basis in EE is $15,000
Explanation:
Base on the scenario been described in the question, repayment of liabilities is treated as a cash distribution. Esther's share of the debt reduction is Since this amount is lower than her outside basis ($40,000) she does not recognize a gain or loss.reduces her outside basis by the $25,000, which leaves her $15,000 of outside basis in EE afterthe debt repayment.
Answer:
Explanation:
For this case the total payment is $320000, and she pays $40000 so the remain amount to pay would be:
$320000-40000=$ 280000
For this case we assume that the annual interest rate is APR=5.7% =0.057 on fraction.
The total number of years are 20. For this case n represent the number of payments per year and since we have monthly payments then n =12.
In order to find the PMT we can use the following formula:
![PMT= \frac{P(\frac{APR}{n})}{[1-(1+\frac{APR}{n})^{-nt}]}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20PMT%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BP%28%5Cfrac%7BAPR%7D%7Bn%7D%29%7D%7B%5B1-%281%2B%5Cfrac%7BAPR%7D%7Bn%7D%29%5E%7B-nt%7D%5D%7D)
On the last expression the APR needs to be on fraction and P represent the principal amount, for this case P = $280000. So if we replace we got:
![PMT= \frac{280000(\frac{0.057}{12})}{[1-(1+\frac{0.057}{12})^{-12*20}]}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20PMT%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B280000%28%5Cfrac%7B0.057%7D%7B12%7D%29%7D%7B%5B1-%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.057%7D%7B12%7D%29%5E%7B-12%2A20%7D%5D%7D)
And we can verify this using the following excel function: "=PMT(0.057/12,12*20,-280000)"
