Answer:
(C) actual amounts from different years are compared.
Explanation:
Budgets are used for control. To compare the performace is necessary to have a same period, with almost the same characteristics and evaluate the actual performance. In sales for example, the bussineses has different seasons around the year, and because some sociodemographic reasons.
From the critical path that's given, the total crashing cost will be $530.
<h3>What is a critical path?</h3>
A critical path simply means the longest sequence of tasks that one will have to complete in order to complete a project.
In this case, from the information given, the critical path will be:
= 0 + $130 + $400
= $530
In conclusion, the correct option will be $530.
Learn more about critical path on:
brainly.com/question/10693558
Answer:
the formula used to calculate the cost of equity (required rate of return) based on the bond yield plus risk premium is fairly simple:
cost of equity (Re) = yield of debt (bonds) + firm's risk premium = 11.52% + 3.55% = 15.07%
I'm not sure if the question was copied correctly or not, so I looked for similar questions and it included different numbers.
<em>The Harrison Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estimating a company's cost of internal equity. Harrison's bonds yield 10.28%, and the firm's analysts estimate that the firm's risk premium on its stock over its bonds is 4.95%. Based on the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach, Harrison's cost of Internal equity is: = 10.28% + 4.95% = 15.23%</em>
<em>Another question: </em>
<em>The Kennedy Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estimating a company's cost of internal equity. Kennedy's bonds yield 11.52%, and the firm's analysts estimate that the firm's risk premium on its stock over its bonds is 4.95%. Based on the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach, Kennedy's cost of internal equity is: = 11.52% + 4.95% = 16.47%</em>
Answer: A. As Expenses
B. No treatment.
Explanation:
A. The $100,000 was not structured and a loan so it will be accounted for as EXPENSES. This means that it will be deducted from the Income for the year from Calhoun's books.
B. A C Corporation is by definition taxed SEPARATELY from it's owners in the United States of America. Seeing as both Corporations were C Corporations, Jonathan as the owner of both companies need not worry about how he should treat the $100,000 payment as he will not ne taxed on it.
Answer:
The market value of the stock is $41.8
Explanation:
Div 1 = Div 0 (1+r)
=3.80 (1+0.10)
=3.80(1.10)
=4.18
Market value of the stock= Dividend 1 / (r-g)
= 4.18 / 0.2 - 0.1
= 4.18 / 0.1
= $41.8
The market value of the stock is $41.8
