A grocer is mixing 40 cent per pound coffee with 60 cent per pound coffee to make a mixture worth 54 cents per

What is 64x4 pls help me

Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

256

Step-by-step explanation:

64*4

(60*4)+(4*4)

240+16

256

you could also take a different approach--

64=4^3

4^3*4=4^4

4^4=16^2=256

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.

Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

$p(m) = 0.52$ (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

$p(f) = 0.48$ (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over 2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

$p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)$

And substituting, we find

$p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27$

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

$p(ff)$

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

$p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)$

And substituting

$p(f)=0.48$

We find:

$p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23$

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely $p(mf)$

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely $p(fm)$

So, this probability is

$p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)$

We have:

$p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25$

$p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25$

Therefore, this probability is

$p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50$

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0

3 years ago

Find the shaded sector and the length of the arc. Round to the nearest hundredth.

Dovator [93]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I'll show you how to do the first one; the other are exactly the same, so pay attention.

The formula for arc length is

$AL=\frac{\theta}{360}*2\pi r$ where θ is the central angle's measure. It just so happens that the measure of the central angle is the same as the measure of the arc it intercepts. Our arc shows a measure of 40°; this measure is NOT the same as the length. Measures are in degrees while length is in inches, or cm, or meters, etc. Going off that info, our central angle measures 40°. Filling in the formula and using 3.1415 for π:

$AL=\frac{40}{360}*2(3.1415)(3)$ . I'm going to reduce that fraction a bit (and I'll use the same reduction in the Area of a sector coming up next):

$AL=\frac{1}{9}*2(3.1415)(3)$ which makes

AL = 2.09 units. Now for Area of the Sector. The formula is almost identical, but instead uses the idea that the area of a circle is πr²:

$A_s=\frac{\theta}{360}*\pi r^2$ where θ is, again, the measure of the central angle (which is the same as the measure of the arc it intercepts). Filling in: