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3 years ago

How many feet are in a mile

Mathematics

2 answers:

bulgar [2K]3 years ago

6 0

1 mile = 5,280 feet
Hope this helps!! xx

Triss [41]3 years ago

6 0

There are 5280 feet in a mile!! (btw could you mark me as brainliest if you don't mind? thanks!)

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A swearer cost $20 but the price was reduced to $ 12 what was the price after the price was reduced

bixtya [17]

Answer:

$20-$12=

Step-by-step explanation:

20-12=8

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2 years ago

Which of the following is a regular quadrilateral

irga5000 [103]

Answer:

(B) square

Step-by-step explanation:

Square (regular quadrilateral): all four sides are of equal length (equilateral), and all four angles are right angles.

8 0

2 years ago

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What is 4725 devided by 30

lana [24]

4725 devided by 30 is 4725 / 30 = 157.5 ;

6 0

3 years ago

Anyone can help me I would appreciate it

Kisachek [45]

Answer:

This would be shifted down 8 and made 3 times less steep.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to determine these transformations, we first need to compare the constants at the end. This will determine the up or downward shift. Since the f(x) is 5 and the g(x) is -3, we know that it went down 8.

Next we compare the coefficients of x. Since the f(x) is 6 and the g(x) is 2, we know that it is 3 times less steep.

7 0

2 years ago

What is the probability of rolling a four then a three

spayn [35]

Answer:

$\frac{1}{36}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Total possibilities when we a roll a die at a time are 6

given we should have four for first time and then three

let us assume we rolled the dice we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 4 is

PROBABILITY= $\frac{\textrm{FAVOURABLE CHANCES}}{\textrm{TOTAL CHANCES}}$

Favourable chances=1

Total chances=6

Probability= $\frac{1}{6}$

the prabability to get 4 in first roll is $\frac{1}{6}$ .

let us assume we rolled the dice for second time again we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 3 is

Favourable chances=1

total chances=6

probability= $\frac{1}{6}$

the probability to get 3 in second roll irrespective of first one is $\frac{1}{6}$

the probability to get 4 in first time and then 3 is

The probability to occur both events at a time is multiplication of individual probabilities

So,

probablility to get 4 in first roll= $\frac{1}{6}$

probability to get 3 in second roll= $\frac{1}{6}$

probability to occur both at a same time is = $\frac{1}{6}$ $\times$ $\frac{1}{6}$ = $\frac{1}{36}$

6 0

2 years ago