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Flauer [41]
3 years ago
10

Which of the following statements is true of the methods for allocating joint costs? The sales value at splitoff method allocate

s joint costs to each product in proportion to the sales value of total production. The sales value at splitoff method always results in the same gross-margin percentage for all products. The net realizable value method uses the sales value of the units sold during the accounting period to allocate joint costs. The net realizable value method results in the same joint production cost per unit for all products.
Business
1 answer:
Anastaziya [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

nothing

Explanation:

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Margin of safety is computed as: a. Actual sales - Break-even sales. b. Contribution margin - Fixed costs. c. Break-even sales -
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

A. Actual Sales - Break-even sales

Explanation:

In business studies, Margin of safety (MOS) is the difference between actual/projected/budgeted sales and the level of break even sales. It is calculated by subtracting break even sales from projected or budgeted sales.

It is usually calculated by a company to know the level of percentage by which sales can drop in that company, before they start incurring losses. IT IS A MEASURE OF BUSINESS RISK.

3 0
3 years ago
A favorable materials price variance coupled with an unfavorable material usage variance would most likely result from:
Masteriza [31]
The purchase of low-quality materials would most likely the result of a favorable materials price variance coupled with an unfavorable material usage variance. Material price variance is the difference between the cost and the budgeted and actual cost to obtain an object or materials, multiply to the total amount of the product purchased. They are what you called positive value of direct material price and negative value of direct material price. A positive value of direct material price variance is the one that is favorable and it means that the direct material was purchased for a lesser price than the standard price. A negative value of direct material price variance is the one that is unfavorable and it means that more than the expected price per unit is paid.
3 0
4 years ago
Assume that Simple Co. had credit sales of $258,000 and cost of goods sold of $158,000 for the period. Simple uses the aging met
Sphinxa [80]

Answer: The amount of bad debt expense the company would record would be $3,470.

Explanation: Bad debt expense is an estimate of accounts receivable that is deemed as uncollectible while allowance for doubtful accounts is a balance sheet allowance account that warehouses the total balance of accounts receivable that is deemed irrecoverable.

In this scenario, Simple Co. estimated, using the aging method, that the allowance for doubtful accounts is $3,800. However, it had a credit balance of $330 in the same account. The reinstate the allowance account to $3,800, $3,470 has to be adjusted for by debiting bad debt expense and crediting allowance for doubtful account.

3 0
3 years ago
A company is formulating its plans for the coming year, including the preparation of its cash budget. Historically, the company'
Alchen [17]

Answer:

c. $4,025,200

Explanation:

The computation of the total cash receipts from sales and collections in April month is shown below:

= April sales × cash sales percentage + April sales × credit sales percentage × collection month percentage + March sales  credit sales percentage × Following month collection percentage

= $4,000,000 ×30% + $4,000,000 × 70% × 40% + $4,200,000 × 70% × 58%

= $1,200,000 + $1,120,000 + $1,705,200

= $4,025,200

Since cash sales are 30% , so the credit sales would be 70%

3 0
4 years ago
If gdp is $20 trillon, how many years will it take for gdp to increase to $40 trillion if annual growth is 10 percent?
ElenaW [278]

It will take 7 years.

Given GDP is $20 trillion and increased GDP is $40 trillion.

Gross domestic product (GDP) is the standard measure of  value added generated by the country's production of goods and services over a certain time period. GDP is the total monetary or market worth of all completed products and services produced within a country's boundaries in a certain time period.

As such, it also accounts for the money generated by such output, as well as the overall amount spent on final products and services (less imports).

Time take to reach $40 trillion is to be found.

Formula to find the time taken to reach $40 trillion  is given below:

F = P *(1+i) ^t

Here,

F = 40,

P = 20,

I = 10%

Now put the values in the formula given above.

F = 0.1040 = 20 × (1+0.10) ^t(1.10)^t

  = 40 / 20

  = 2

Taking log both sides t = log 2 / log 1.10  

                                    = 7.27 yrs or 7 yrs

Therefore, it will take 7 years.

To know more about GDP click here:

brainly.com/question/1383956

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
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