Answer:
income-generating assets under the current account of the balance of payment.
Explanation:
In international trade to balance of payments between countries looks at inflow and outflow of funds as a result of trade.
When there is balance of trade deficit the country imports from others. When there is balance of payment surplus the country exports to others.
The fund movement is recorded in various accounts. These are current account, capital account, and financial account.
The current account is used to record funds recieved from goods, services, income, and current transfers.
The receipt of dividends and interest from abroad as a result of ownership of foreign assets by a country's residents is recorded as
income-generating assets under the current account of the balance of payment.
<em>Answer:</em>
<em>A drug cartel is a criminal organization with the intention of supplying drug trafficking operations. They range from loosely managed agreements among various drug traffickers to formalized commercial enterprises.</em>
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Given:
Par value of the bond : 5,000
coupon rate of the bond: 5%
par value x coupon rate = annual interest
5,000 x 5% = 250 annual interest
Samuel will receive an annual interest of $250 until the bond reaches maturity, or he sells the bond to someone else.
Regardless of the changes in bond prices in the market, Samuel will always receive a fixed annual interest of 250 from his bond.
Lapping is best described as the process of <u>B. applying </u><u>cash receipts</u> to a different customer's account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of cash receipts.
<h3>What is Lapping?</h3>
Lapping is an employee stealing scheme revolving around the application of cash receipts.
Lapping can be traced by tracing the application of cash receipts to customers' accounts.
Routine application of cash receipts to wrong customer accounts proves evidence of a lapping scheme.
Thus, Lapping is best described as the process of <u>B. applying </u><u>cash receipts</u> to a different customer's account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of cash receipts.
Learn more about lapping schemes at brainly.com/question/14846195
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Answer:
$57.69 per share
Explanation:
The computation of the stock price per share immediately after issuing the debt but prior to the repurchase is shown below
Price per share = Value of equity ÷ number of Shares
where,
Value of equity is
= Value of operations + T-bills value - Debt value
= $576,923 + $259,615 - $259,615
= $576,923
And, the number of shares is 10,000 shares
So, the price per share is
= $576,923 ÷ 10,000 shares
= $57.69 per share
We simply applied the above formula