Answer:
700 units
Explanation:
FC1 : Fixed Costs from process 1
VC1 : Variable cost per unit from process 1
FC2 : Fixed Costs from process 2
VC2 : Variable cost per unit from process 2
FC1 = $50,000
VC1 = $700 per unit
FC2 = $400,000
VC2 = $200 per unit
To calculate the break-even (quantity) point we must equate the TC1 (Total cost of process 1) to TC2 (Total cost of process 2)
TC1 = TC2
FC1 + VC1(y) = FC2 + VC2(y) where y is the break-even units
50,000 + 700y = 400,000 + 200y
500y = 350,000
y = 350,000 / 500
y = 700 Units
Answer:
27%
Explanation:
The actual rate being charge on these loans is the effective annual rate and the formula to calculate it is:
i=(1+(r/m))^m−1
i= effective annual rate
r= interest rate in decimal form=0.24
m=number of compounding periods per year= 52 (a year has 52 weeks).
i=(1+(0.24/52))^52-1
i=1.27-1
i=0.27
According to this, the answer is that the actual rate being charge on these loans is 27%.
It changes over time, depending on the expected rate of return on productive assets exchanged among market participants and people's time preferences for consumption.
The date,
signature
rules.
Answer:
The statement given is TRUE:
Explanation: Most of CBMS left in 2008, there was vacuum that was left. Banks just decided to clean up their balance sheets, and did not participate. The life insurance companies took advantage of this period and increased their origination and thus increased the lending to this sector where there was a huge vacuum.
