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Neko [114]
3 years ago
12

How do I find the % of something like what is 6.2 %of $2768.00

Mathematics
1 answer:
anastassius [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

6.2% of $2768 = $171.62

Step-by-step explanation:

To find 6.2% of 2768.

Solution:

In order to find the percent of some number, we will convert the percent into fraction form and then multiply that with that number. Thus, we get that percent of the number.

6.2% can be written in fraction form as:

6.2\% =\frac{6.2}{100}

6.2% of $2768 can be evaluated as :

⇒ \frac{6.2}{100}\times 2768

Multiplying the numerators.

⇒ \frac{6.2\times 2768}{100}

⇒ \frac{17161.6}{100}

⇒ \$171.616\approx \$171.62 (Answer)

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For which acute angles is the following statement true? The complement of the angle is smaller in measure than either of the two
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Let the acute angle be 2x.

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It is given that this complementary angle is less than each of the bisected angle.

Therefore, 90 - 2x < x

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or, x > 30.

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4 years ago
3. Assume that the likelihood of a child under the age of ten watching PBS is 0.76. Three children are
natta225 [31]

Using the binomial distribution, the probabilities are given as follows:

a) 0.4159 = 41.59%.

b) 0.5610 = 56.10%.

c) 0.8549 = 85.49%.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

For this problem, the values of the parameters are:

n = 3, p = 0.76.

Item a:

The probability is P(X = 2), hence:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{3,2}.(0.76)^{2}.(0.24)^{1} = 0.4159

Item b:

The probability is P(X < 3), hence:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 3) = C_{3,3}.(0.76)^{3}.(0.24)^{0} = 0.4390

Then:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3) = 1 - 0.4390 = 0.5610 = 56.10%.

Item c:

The probability is:

P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.4159 + 0.4390 = 0.8549

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

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2 years ago
I keep on reading 9 over and over and I can’t seem to get it.. Anyone mind helping?
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I could provide an explanation if needed.
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The cover of a soccer ball consists of interlocking regular pentagons and regular hexagons. Why can't they be interlocked in thi
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Answer: Because of gaps between the vertex of Pentagons and hexagon.

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Sum of the angle of a Pentagon will be: (5 - 2)×180 = 540

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Since there is no number of combinations that can be equal to 360, there will surely be a gap.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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