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Sav [38]
3 years ago
8

Because of Theorem 5.47 any function that is continuous on (0, 1) but unbounded cannot be uniformly continuous there. Give an ex

ample of a continuous function on (0, 1) that is bounded, but not uniformly continuous.
Mathematics
1 answer:
almond37 [142]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

f: (0,1) \to \mathbb{R}

f(x) = \sin(1/x)

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>f is continuous</u> because is the composition of two continuous functions:

g(x) = \sin(x) (it is continuous in the real numbers)

h(x) = 1/x (it is continuous in the domain (0,1))

<u>It is bounded</u> because -1 \leq \sin(\theta) \leq 1

<u>And it is not uniformly continuous</u> because we can take \varepsilon = 1 in the definition. Let \delta > 0 we will prove that there exist a pair x,y\in \mathbb{R} such that |x-y|< \delta and |f(x) -f(y)|> \varepsilon = 1.

Now, by the archimedean property we know that there exists a natural number N such that

\frac{1}{N} < 2\pi \delta

\Rightarrow \frac{1}{2\pi N} < \delta.

Let's take x = \frac{1}{2\pi N + \pi/2} and y = \frac{1}{2\pi N + 3\pi/2}. We can see that

|x-y| = \frac{1}{2\pi N + \pi/2}-\frac{1}{2\pi N + 3\pi/2}

And also:

|f(x)- f(y)| = |f(2\pi N + \pi/2) - f(2\pi N + 3\pi/2)| = |1 - (-1)| = 2 > \varepsilon

And we conclude the proof.

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