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laiz [17]
3 years ago
9

Plz help and explain

Mathematics
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
8 0
Id say the first one because the points just touch down
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What is the name of the triangle with the largest angle
IrinaVladis [17]
An obtuse triangle. or the hypotenuse if your talking about the longest side.
7 0
3 years ago
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The equation of line WX is 2x + y = -5. What is the equation of a line perpendicular to line WX in slope-intercept form that con
sveticcg [70]

Answer:

The third choice is the one you want

Step-by-step explanation:

If we are to write the equation of a line perpendicular to WX, we first must determine what the slope of the WX is, because the line perpendicular to WX has a slope that is the flip of the slope of WX with the opposite sign.  Solving for y takes care of finding the slope of WX:

2x + y = -5 so

y = -2x - 5

The slope is -2.  That means that the reciprocal slope is 1/2.  Using that slope along with the coordinates x = -1 and y = -2, we first write the line using point-slope form and then solve it for y.  Start by filling in the m, the x value and the y value:

y - (-2) = \frac{1}{2}(x-(-1))

Getting rid of the double negatives gives us:

y+2=\frac{1}{2}(x+1)

Distributing then gives us:

y+2=\frac{1}{2}x+\frac{1}{2}

And finally solving for y (I am going to express the 2 on the left as 4/2 when I move it by subtraction in order to add those fractions):

y=\frac{1}{2}x+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{4}{2}

And the final equation in slope-intercept form is:

y=\frac{1}{2}x-\frac{3}{2}

8 0
2 years ago
picture above
MAXImum [283]

Answer:

False :)

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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Determine the better buy. 12 oz for $2.69 or 16 oz for $2.49?
topjm [15]
12 oz for 2.68 = .22 per unit
16 oz for 2.49 = .16 per unit

the 16 oz for 2.49 is your better deal

5 0
3 years ago
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Fill in the blanks below to make a true statement. In a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p, if np (1
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

\mu_{x}=np

\sigma^2_{X}=np(1-p)

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ When x is a random variable having distribution B(n, p), then for sufficiently large value of n, the following random variable has a standard normal distribution,

\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\sim N(0,1)

Where,

\mu=np

\sigma^2=np(1-p)

Here the variable X has a binomial distribution,

Such that, np (1 - p) ≥ 10 ⇒ n is sufficiently large.

Where, n is the total numbers of trials, p is success in each trials,

So, the mean of variable X is,

\mu_{X} = np

And, variance of variable X is,

\sigma^2{X}=np(1-p)

3 0
3 years ago
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