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Mumz [18]
4 years ago
12

Home Security Systems is analyzing the purchase of manufacturing equipment that will cost $54,000. The annual cash inflows for t

he next three years will be:Year Cash Flow1 $ 27,000 2 25,000 3 20,000
Business
1 answer:
hoa [83]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

This question does not include what you are required to do. I looked it up on the web and it is asking for the Internal rate of return (IRR)

Explanation:

Internal rate of return used in project evaluations is the rate at which the NPV of a project equals to zero.

You can solve for IRR using a financial calculator and the cashflow "CF " function.  Key in the following inputs;

Initial investment; CF0 = -54,000

Yr1 cashflow inflow ; C01 = 27,000

Yr2 cashflow inflow ; C02 = 25,000

Yr3 cashflow inflow ; C03 = 20,000

Then key in IRR then CPT = 16.792%

Therefore, the Internal rate of return(IRR) for this equipment  is 16.79%

You might be interested in
In 2010, the imaginary nation of Bovina had a population of 5,000 and real GDP of 600,000. In 2011 it had a population of 5,200
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

In 2010,

Real GDP = 600,000

Population = 5,000

Real GDP per person:

= Real GDP ÷ Population

= 600,000 ÷ 5,000

= 120

In 2011,

Real GDP = 636,480

Population = 5,200

Real GDP per person:

= Real GDP ÷ Population

= 636,480 ÷ 5,200

= 122.4

Growth rate of real GDP per person during the year 2011:

= [(Real GDP per person in 2011 - Real GDP per person in 2010) ÷ Real GDP per person in 2010] × 100

= [(122.4 - 120) ÷ 120] × 100

= (2.4 ÷ 120) × 100

= 0.02 × 100

= 2%

It was seen from the data available on the world bank that the United states real GDP per person is growing at an average rate of 2% between 1910 and 2010.

Hence, the Growth rate of real GDP per person during the year 2011 is about the same as average U.S. growth over the last one-hundred years.

6 0
3 years ago
Mr. Wise is retiring In 25 years He would like to accumulate $1,000.000 for his retirement fund by then He plans make equal mont
Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

$532.24

Explanation:

Since Mr. Wise will be making monthly payments for the period of 25 years in order to accumulated the $1,000,000 at the end of 25 years, therefore, the future value of annuity shall be used to determine the monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise. The formula of future value of annuity is given as follows:

Future value of annuity=R[((1+i)^n-1)/i]

In the given scenario:

Future value of annuity=amount after 25 years=$1,000.000

R=monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise=?

i=interest rate per month=12/12=1%

n=number of payments involved=25*12=300

$1,000,000=R[((1+1%)^300-1)/1%]

R=$532.24

7 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2006, Frye Co. has $2,000,000 of short-term notes payable due on February 14, 2007. On February 2, 2007, Frye is
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

The amount of short term notes payable reported as Current liabilities (CL) on December 31, 2006 is $500,000

Explanation:

The amount of short term notes payable reported as Current liabilities (CL) on December 31, 2006 is computed as:

Amount of short term notes payable = Short term notes payable due on Feb 14 - Borrowed from County Bank

where

Short term notes payable due on Feb 14 is $2,000,000

Borrowed from County Bank is $1,500,000

Putting the values above:

Amount of short term notes payable  =  $2,000,000 - $1,500,000

Amount of short term notes payable = $500,000

5 0
3 years ago
When does one country have an absolute advantage over another country?
Rashid [163]
A country with an absolute advantage over another country achieves this if their production costs are lower.

Absolute advantage means a company or individual out perform another more efficiently. In this case, if two companies are making a product and one selling them for the same price, but one company can make the product for cheaper, they have an absolute advantage. 
7 0
3 years ago
The opportunity cost of an action: can be determined by considering both the benefits that flow from as well as the monetary cos
yarga [219]
<h3>Hello there!</h3>

Your question asks what an opportunity cost of an action is.

<h3>Answer: D). is a subjective valuation that can be determined only by the individual who chooses the action.</h3>

The reason why answer choice "D). is a subjective valuation that can be determined only by the individual who chooses the action" is correct because an opportunity cost of an action is not the same for everyone.

An opportunity cost of an action is subjective, meaning that the action can be determined by someone's opinion, feelings, etc. Everyone thinks differently, therefore making everyone's opportunity cost of action different.

A opportunity cost of an action also is determined by the individual themselves, not anyone else. That's why the action is subjective, due to the fact that the decision on the action is determined by the individual personal opinions and feelings.

<h3>I hope this helps!</h3><h3>Best regards,</h3><h3>MasterInvestor</h3>
8 0
4 years ago
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