Answer:
Option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
In 2010,
Real GDP = 600,000
Population = 5,000
Real GDP per person:
= Real GDP ÷ Population
= 600,000 ÷ 5,000
= 120
In 2011,
Real GDP = 636,480
Population = 5,200
Real GDP per person:
= Real GDP ÷ Population
= 636,480 ÷ 5,200
= 122.4
Growth rate of real GDP per person during the year 2011:
= [(Real GDP per person in 2011 - Real GDP per person in 2010) ÷ Real GDP per person in 2010] × 100
= [(122.4 - 120) ÷ 120] × 100
= (2.4 ÷ 120) × 100
= 0.02 × 100
= 2%
It was seen from the data available on the world bank that the United states real GDP per person is growing at an average rate of 2% between 1910 and 2010.
Hence, the Growth rate of real GDP per person during the year 2011 is about the same as average U.S. growth over the last one-hundred years.
Answer:
$532.24
Explanation:
Since Mr. Wise will be making monthly payments for the period of 25 years in order to accumulated the $1,000,000 at the end of 25 years, therefore, the future value of annuity shall be used to determine the monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise. The formula of future value of annuity is given as follows:
Future value of annuity=R[((1+i)^n-1)/i]
In the given scenario:
Future value of annuity=amount after 25 years=$1,000.000
R=monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise=?
i=interest rate per month=12/12=1%
n=number of payments involved=25*12=300
$1,000,000=R[((1+1%)^300-1)/1%]
R=$532.24
Answer:
The amount of short term notes payable reported as Current liabilities (CL) on December 31, 2006 is $500,000
Explanation:
The amount of short term notes payable reported as Current liabilities (CL) on December 31, 2006 is computed as:
Amount of short term notes payable = Short term notes payable due on Feb 14 - Borrowed from County Bank
where
Short term notes payable due on Feb 14 is $2,000,000
Borrowed from County Bank is $1,500,000
Putting the values above:
Amount of short term notes payable = $2,000,000 - $1,500,000
Amount of short term notes payable = $500,000
A country with an absolute advantage over another country achieves this if their production costs are lower.
Absolute advantage means a company or individual out perform another more efficiently. In this case, if two companies are making a product and one selling them for the same price, but one company can make the product for cheaper, they have an absolute advantage.
<h3>Hello there!</h3>
Your question asks what an opportunity cost of an action is.
<h3>Answer: D). is a subjective valuation that can be determined only by the individual who chooses the action.</h3>
The reason why answer choice "D). is a subjective valuation that can be determined only by the individual who chooses the action" is correct because an opportunity cost of an action is not the same for everyone.
An opportunity cost of an action is subjective, meaning that the action can be determined by someone's opinion, feelings, etc. Everyone thinks differently, therefore making everyone's opportunity cost of action different.
A opportunity cost of an action also is determined by the individual themselves, not anyone else. That's why the action is subjective, due to the fact that the decision on the action is determined by the individual personal opinions and feelings.
<h3>I hope this helps!</h3><h3>Best regards,</h3><h3>MasterInvestor</h3>