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LenKa [72]
3 years ago
6

In previous years, Cox Transport reacquired 4 million treasury shares at $22 per share and, later, 2 million treasury shares at

$25 per share. If Cox now sells 2 million treasury shares at $27 per share and determines cost as the weighted-average cost of treasury shares, by what amount will Cox’s paid-in capital - share repurchase increase? (Enter your answer in millions (i.e., 10,000,000 should be entered as 10).)
Business
1 answer:
crimeas [40]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$8 million

Explanation:

Weighted-average cost = [(4,000,000 × $22) + (2,000,000 × $25)] ÷ (4,000,000 + 2,000,000) = $23

Increase in paid-in capital - share repurchase per share = selling price —Weighted-average cost = $27 - $23 = $4

Amount of increase in paid-in capital—share repurchase = Number of treasury shares × $4 = 2 million × $4 = $8 million

Therefore, Cox’s paid-in capital - share repurchase will increase by $8 million.

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What are your options?
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Allushta [10]

Answer: the other components that can be used include risk assessment, quality assurance check, strategic security frameworks and mode of governance.

Explanation:

Security management is simply a process that involve identification of an organisation's assets including the employees, customers, machines, Information assets followed by means to protect these assets. Organizations use these security management procedures and implementation to check risk, quality and threats.

Security manager should be a manager with the following attributes ;

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3 0
3 years ago
Suppose the price of apples goes up from $20 to $22 a box. In direct response, Goldsboro Farms supplies 1,200 boxes of apples in
OLga [1]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Price elasticity measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded or supplied of a good to a change in its price. It is computed as the percentage change in quantity demanded—or supplied—divided by the percentage change in price.

Elasticity can be described as elastic—or very responsive—unit elastic, or inelastic—not very responsive.

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An inelastic demand or supply curve is one where a given percentage change in price will cause a smaller percentage change in quantity demanded or supplied.

Unitary elasticity means that a given percentage change in price leads to an equal percentage change in quantity demanded or supplied.

8 0
2 years ago
Bond Yields and Rates of Return A 30-year, 10% semiannual coupon bond with a par value of $1,000 may be called in 4 years at a c
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

The bond's yield to maturity is 9.45% using Excel to get exact values, and 9.59% using approximate method.

Explanation:

We can calculate is using 2 ways, using Excel to get the exact percentage or with approximate methods, calculating the semi-annual Yield to Maturity using the following formula

YTM_{sm} =\cfrac{PMT+\cfrac{FV-PV}n}{\cfrac{FV+PV}2}

And from there we can calculate the Yield to Maturity just by multiplying the semi-annual one by 2.

Identifying the given information.

We have a period of 30 years, so for the semiannual bond we have n=2(30) = 60 periods.

The face value, FV, is $1000, the coupon rate is 0.10, thus we can use them to  find the interest per period PMT.

PMT=0.10 \times \cfrac{1000}{2}\\PMT=\$ 50

The current price of the bond, PV is $1050.

Replacing the values on the semiannual Yield to Maturity

YTM_{sm} =\cfrac{PMT+\cfrac{FV-PV}n}{\cfrac{FV+PV}2}

YTM_{sm}=\cfrac{50+\cfrac{1000-1050}{60}}{\cfrac{1000+1050}{2}}

Simplifying we get

YTM_{sm}=4.797\%\\

Finding the Yield to Maturity.

We can just multiply by 2 to get the Yield to Maturity from our previous result and rounding it to 2 decimals we get

YTM = 2 YTM_{sm}\\YTM=9.59\%

Alternatively we can use Excel and write:

RATE(n, PMT, PV, FV)*2

That is

RATE(60,50,1050,1000)*2

And we will get the exact Yield to maturity 9.49%

3 0
3 years ago
An investor holds a 6% callable bond purchased at 105. If the issuer calls the bond before maturity, the yield to call (YTC) rea
myrzilka [38]

Answer: less than the coupon

Explanation:

When a bond that is bought at a premium of 205 is called before the bond matures by the issuer, this implies that the accelerated premium loss will have to be reflected in calculated yield to maturity.

It should also be noted that the YTC is the lowest among the yields for the premium bonds. Therefore, if the issuer calls the bond before maturity, the yield to call (YTC) realized by the investor would be less than the coupon.

Option B is correct.

7 0
3 years ago
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