Answer:
The answer is intensive distribution strategy.
Explanation:
Intensive distribution strategy occurs when a company tries to sell their products through as many outlets as possible, thus ensuring that customers will encounter the company’s products in various distributor points. It is generally done to increase sales of products. Companies that would use this type of strategy are typically those that are competing in a perfect competition market, since product unavailability would just make customers of the product use a different brand from a competitor’s company instead.
Answer: Agency problem
Explanation:
Agency problem is the issue rises when the agents fails to display appropriate interest of principles.This interest conflict usually occurs between the organisation's stakeholder and management.
In this situation,manger is the person who usually acts as the agent for providing best interest to the stakeholder to increase their wealth and benefit.But if failure in this case occurs , then conflict is experienced between both the parties.
Answer:
Risk free interest rate is 5%
Y is 15.5% at a Beta of 1.5
X is 0.29 when Y is 7%
Explanation:
Risk free interest is 0.05 which 5% as given in the equation
The average expected return is given by Y
Y=0.05+0.07X
Since Beta is the same as X, when equals 1.5,Y is calculated thus
Y=0.05+0.07(1.5)
Y=0.05+0.105
Y=0.155
Y=15.5%
The value of Beta at an average return of 7% is computed thus:
7%=0.05+0.07X
where X is the unknown
0.07=0.05+0.07X
0.07-0.05=0.07X
0.02=0.07X
X=0.02/0.07
X=0.29
The scenario illustrates that the Beta, which is the risk of investment and the Y , the expected average return are positively correlated.
Answer:
Total sum at te end of 6 years=$ 73,138.97
Explanation:
<em>The total sum in Lee's account at the end of year would be determined as follows:</em>
FV= A × (1+r)^n
FV- Future sum?,
A- deposit amount ,
r- interest rate - 9%/2 = 4.5% per 6 months
n- number of years is 6
First deposit for 6 years
FV = 15,000× 1.045^(2×6)
= $25,438.22
Last 40,000 for 2 years
FV = 40,000 1.045^(2×2)
=47,700.74403
Total sum at the end of 6 years
= $25,438.22 + $47,700.74
=$ 73,138.97
