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3 years ago

One reason to buy a home instead of rent a home is:

2 answers:

7 0

I'm not sure if you have answer questions but here are some potential choices:
-Home value can increase over time if you want to sell again.
-You don't need to worry about rent.
-You can change your homes interior and exterior

Effectus [21]3 years ago

3 0

Less money up front equals it to be better than renting an appartment

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There are 8 kinds of sewing machine. Are all of them are used for constructing a garment? Why?

qaws [65]

No, they can be used for mechanical uses

5 0

2 years ago

Stellar Plastics is analyzing a proposed project with annual depreciation of $19,500 and a tax rate of 34 percent. The company e

marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

$20,226

Explanation:

expected sales = 11,400 - 12,000 - 12,600

expected sales price = $7.20 - $7.50 - $7.80

expected variable cost = $3.072 - $3.20 - $3.328

total fixed costs = $31,000

if you use an excel spreadsheet you can calculate all the different possible simulations and combine all the expected sales x 3 different price levels x 3 different variable costs and 1 fixed cost. Once you get all the 27 possible solutions, you just get the average.

I attached it because there is no room here.

Download pdf

0 0

3 years ago

True or False: Computing interest using the sum-of-the-digits method allocates more interest at the beginning of a loan than at

Serhud [2]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

To illustrate how the sum-of-the-digits method allocates interest we can use a lease example:

You are the lessor and you will lease a machine during 4 years. The lease requires 4 equal payments of $100,000 at the beginning of the year. After the lease, the asset's salvage value = $0.

The asset's current value = $300,000, so total interests received = $100,000

Using the sum-of-the-digits method, you will allocate interest as follows:

year 1 = 3/6 x $100,000 = $50,000
year 2 = 2/6 x $100,000 = $33,333
year 3 = 1/6 x $100,000 = $17,000

The largest portion of interests is allocated during the beginning of the loan.

5 0

3 years ago

Suppose that Steve heads to the local hamburger shop with $3, expecting to spend $2 for his favorite burger and $1 for French fr

PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

Income effect

Explanation:

The effect is because the customer purchasing power has been changed due to which he is now able to buy more to fulfill his needs and wants. The income effect occurs due to two reasons.

Number 1. The real income of the person has been increased which means his purchasing power has been increased. This means previously you were earning $2000 a month and now you are earning $10000 a month. Now you can buy New Iphone every month because your real income has been increased and this has increased your purchasing power.

Number 2. The price of the product has been fallen and now it is in range of the purchasing power of the customer. This means that if Iphones 11 are available at $100 then everybody buy Iphone 11. This is because the product is in the range of purchasing power of greater number of customers.

5 0

3 years ago

The Carbondale Hospital is considering the purchase of a new ambulance. The decision will rest partly on the anticipated mileage

Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

a. Year 6 Forecast = 3,775

b. Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. Year 6 Forecast = 3,780

Explanation:

Given

The miles driven during the past 5 years are as follows

Year 1 -- 3,100

Year 2 --- 4,050

Year 3 --- 3,450

Year 4 ---- 3,750

Year 5 --- 3,800

a. The forecast for year 6 is calculated as follows;

Using a 2 year moving average

Forecast = ½(Year 4 + Year 5)

Forecast = ½(3750 + 3800)

Forecast = ½ * 7550

Forecast = 3,775

b. Calculating the Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD), if two years moving average is used.

------------------------------2 year difference ----- Difference

Year 1 -- 3,100 ------------------------------------------

Year 2 --- 4,050 -----------------------------------------

Year 3 --- 3,450 ---- 3,575 -------- 125

Year 4 ---- 3,750 ---- 3,750 ------ 0

Year 5 --- 3,800 ----- 3,600 ------ 200

The 2-year difference column is calculated using.

Summation of previous 2 years forecast * ½

Year 1 and 2 are empty because they don't have previous 2 years.

For year 3;

2 year difference = ½ (year 1 + year 2)

= ½(3,100 + 4,050)

= ½ (7,150)

= 3,575

For year 4

2 year difference = ½ (year 2 + year 3)

= ½(4,050 + 3,750)

= ½ (7,500)

= 3,750

For year 5:

2 year difference = ½ (year 3 + year 4)

= ½(3,750 + 3,450)

= ½ (7,200)

= 3,600

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (Summation of Difference)/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (125 + 0 + 200)

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 325/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. for year 6 using a weighted 2-year moving average with weights of 0.40 and 0.60

For year 5:

Forecast = 0.4 * year 4 + 0.6 * year 5

= 0.4(3,750) + 0.6(3,800)

= 3,780

5 0

3 years ago