Answer: He incur $10 per share for tax purposes.
Explanation:
Formula to calculate a gain or loss for tax purposes:
Gain or Loss for tax purposes = proceeds - cost basis
Cost per share = $ 60
After 2 for 1 stock split, the value of per share = (Cost per share) ÷2
= ($60) ÷2 = $30
Sale price of a share = $40
Since, $40 > $30, i.e. Sale price> Cost per share .So its a gain.
Gain= $40 - $30 = $10
Hence, he incur $10 per share for tax purposes.
A. True
The CPI is a measure of the cost of a "basket" of typical consumer goods, so if the cost of these goods goes down most families will spend less on average.
The price a firm charges for a good or service is typically less than the value placed on that good or service by the customer. This is because the customer captures some of that value in the form of what economists call a consumer surplus.
Purchaser surplus measures the gain to buyers from participating in a marketplace. Its miles are measured as the quantity a consumer is willing to pay for an amazing minus the quantity a customer without a doubt can pay for it.
If markets were now not aggressive, the purchaser surplus would be less and there would be more inequality. A lower customer surplus results in better producer surplus and extra inequality. Client surplus allows consumers to purchase a much wider preference of goods.
The customer surplus refers back to the difference between what a consumer is inclined to pay and what they paid for a product. The manufacturer surplus is the difference between the marketplace rate and the bottom fee a manufacturer is willing to just accept to supply an awesome.
Learn more about consumer surplus here brainly.com/question/380921
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Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Remember that a prosperous economy does not imply the most happy country or economy.
Therefore high rates of crime, substance abuse, insecure employment, and family dissolution may exist, but <em>the scale in which this occurs</em> may be relatively lower when compared to a poor economy.
For example, the scale of such vices in United States is lower than in Mexico a poorer economy.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Manufacturing overhead refers to the that portion of the cost which cannot be allocated to the units produced in a reasonable manner. These costs are indirectly related to the product manufactured. For example = depreciation, rent etc.
Thus, the cost of glue cannot be allocated to each individual unit produced. As the worker might put a more in one unit and a little less in the other.
Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is C.
