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navik [9.2K]
3 years ago
8

When writing solicited application letters? __________.

Business
1 answer:
eduard3 years ago
7 0
C for me because i want to know more about my job 
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Who conducts the certifcation election​
VladimirAG [237]

Answer: The NLRB i believe

Explanation: NLRB

7 0
3 years ago
Explain the difference between direct and indirect strategy when writing reports​
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

A direct report is an employee who formally reports to you. This generally means that you are directly responsible for assigning them work and managing their performance. An indirect report are the employees who report to your direct reports and their subordinates.

plz give brainliest to help you with further questions :'D

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Varto Company has 12,600 units of its sole product in inventory that it produced last year at a cost of $31 each. This year’s mo
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

It is more profitable to sell the units as-is.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Number of units= 12,600

Varto has two alternatives for these items:

(1) they can be sold to a wholesaler for $13 each

(2) they can be processed further for $272,300 and then sold for $34 each.

The first cost of $31 is a sunk cost, it will remain no matter which option is chosen. We will not take it into account for the decision making process.

Option 1:

Effect on income= 12,600*13= $163,800

Option 2:

Effect on income= 12,600*34 - 272,300= $156,100

It is more profitable to sell the units as-is.

7 0
3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
The allowance for doubtful accounts currently has a debit balance of $200. The company's management estimates that 2.5% of net c
lidiya [134]

Answer:

Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875

Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Net credit sales = $115,000

Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:

Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%

= $2,875

After Allowance for doubtful expense

Bad debt expense = $2,875 - $200

= $2,675

4 0
3 years ago
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