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Nutka1998 [239]
3 years ago
10

Kushman Industries has $40,000 of ending finished goods inventory. If beginning finished goods inventory was $20,000 and cost of

goods sold was $80,000, how much would Kushman report for cost of goods manufactured
Business
1 answer:
Kamila [148]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$100,000= cost of goods manufactured

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Kushman Industries has $40,000 of ending finished goods inventory.

Beginning finished goods inventory was $20,000

Cost of goods sold was $80,000

To calculate the cost of goods manufactured, we need to use the following formula:

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

80,000 = 20,000 + cost of goods manufactured - 40,000

$100,000= cost of goods manufactured

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A supplier to Ford stamps out parts using a press. Changing a part type requires the supplier to change the die on the press. Th
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

The optimal production batch size for the supplier is 980 units.

Explanation:

In order to calcuate the optimal production batch size for the supplier we have to use the following formula:

optimal production batch size= \sqrt(<u>2×Annual Demand×setup cost)</u>

                                                                 Holding Cost

optimal production batch size=\sqrt (<u>2×(1,000×12)×($250×4)</u>

                                                                  ($100×25%)

optimal production batch size=\sqrt(<u>2×12,000×$1,000)</u>

                                                               $25

optimal production batch size= 980 units

6 0
3 years ago
Compute predetermined overhead rates and explain why estimated overhead costs (rather than actual overhead costs) are used in th
Crazy boy [7]

Why estimated overhead costs (rather than actual overhead costs) are used in the costing process is explained below.

A predetermined cost is an expenditure that a company estimates ahead of time.

This cost is calculated prior to the purpose of production and includes all variable costs that affect production in a manufacturing business.

Actual overhead costs are difficult to calculate for each job, especially in a production environment with a large number of jobs.

As a result, overhead costs are allocated according to some standardized methods, which may link overhead costs to direct labor, machining time, and material used in each job.

Manufacturing overhead in a manufacturing organization refers to indirect costs that are required for production but cannot be traced back to individual products.

Machine depreciation and factory rental are two examples of manufacturing overhead costs.

Hence, computation of predetermined overhead rates is given above.

Learn more about overhead:

brainly.com/question/26082424

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
Suppose there is perfect competition in the output market and the labor market and that the output price is $10 and the wage is
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

2 hours of labor

Explanation:

Labor is hired up to a point where the marginal product of labor * Price of the output = wage of the worker.

Thus, 35 * 10 = 350.

35 widgets are produced using 2 hours of labor.

4 0
3 years ago
Creating, developing, retaining, and obtaining products and services that meet consumer needs is called _____.
Sophie [7]

Answer:

D. Product/service management

Explanation:

"Creating, developing, retaining, and obtaining...meets consumer needs" basically equals management

"Products and services"=product/service

Add them together is product/service management!

Let me know if you have any more questions :)

7 0
2 years ago
Steinberg Corporation and Dietrich Corporation are identical companies except that Dietrich is more levered. Both companies will
valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

a-1.

Steinberg's debt:

Steinberg's equity:

a-2.

Dietrich's debt:

Dietrich's equity:

b. Disagree as the values of the two companies are the same ( please see below Explanation for further clarification)

Explanation:

It is clear to determine that the value of debt and equity of the two firms is the present value of cash flow received in 1 year, discounted at 12%.

a-1.

In one year:

- Debt holder of Steinberg will receive $910,000 regardless of its EBIT. -=> Thus, Steinberg's debt present value = 910,000 / 1.12 = $812,500

- Given the probability of expansion and recession, Steinberg's shareholder will receive the amount equal EBIT -  amount paid to its debt holders: 0.8 x (3,700,000 - 910,000) + 0.2 x (1,100,000-910,000) = $2,270,000.

=> Thus, Steinberg's equity present value = $2,270,000/ 1.12 = $2,026,786

=> Value of Steinberg = D+E = 812,500 + 2,026,786 = $2,839,286 ( note: no tax applied)

a-2.

In one year:

- Debt holder of Dietrich will receive $1,200,000 when the business expands while only $1,100,000 when the business goes into recession (i.e business loss is 100,000):  0.8 x 1,200,000 + 0.2 x 1,100,000 = $1,180,000

=> Thus, Dietrich's debt present value = 1,180,000 / 1.12 = $1,053,571

- Given the probability of expansion and recession, Dietrich's shareholder will receive the amount equal EBIT -  amount paid to its debt holders: 0.8 x (3,700,000 - 1,200,000) + 0.2 x (1,100,000-1,100,000) = $2,000,000.

=> Thus, Dietrich's equity present value = 2,000,000 / 1.12 = $1,785,714

=> Value of Steinberg = D+E =$1,053,571+$1,785,714  = $2,839,286( note: no tax applied)

a-3.

From the calculation, it is clear that the values of the two companies are the same.

6 0
4 years ago
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