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Leto [7]
2 years ago
6

Why did Reagan switched party affiliations in the 1950's?

History
1 answer:
amid [387]2 years ago
7 0
Two very particular issues drove Reagan's political conversion: fiscal policy and anti-communism. In the late 1940s, Reagan was facing the end of his career as a movie actor and was finding less and less work. He was upset because he felt that he had only a short window to maximize his earnings and ensure his future financial security and that the present 90% top marginal rate was unreasonable. 
<span>Reagan's experience as a board member and later president of the Screen Actors Guild also moved him politically rightward. In this professional capacity he dealt with a strike by a set builder union backed by communist sympathizers.

</span>
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Answer:

The answer is B) The flow of goods entering the U.S. was reduced significantly.

Explanation:

As the Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act was implemented bu USA, more than 25 countries increased their tariff rates on American goods.

This drastically affected the international trade and the global commerce as a whole negatively.

And the inflow of goods to the USA was decreased as the businesses and importers were already struggling with the great depression and was unable to afford the new tariffs and prices.

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Answer:

Both Spain and Portugal began to decline in power after 1600. This was mainly because of poor governance and political involvement in wars back in Europe.

Explanation:

At the same time, other European nations began to develop more, specially Britain, the Netherlands (which won its independence from Spain), and France. In these nations, internartional trade and exploration began to be promoted, and this naturally led to the establishment of new colonies around the world, including Asia.

Liek this, Britain, France, and the Netherlands acquired colonies in Asia, and diminished the iberian influence in the continent, which used to be exclusive up until that point.

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Radda [10]

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Option: d. a northern politician banished to the Confederacy.

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