Answer:
d.total factory overhead cost variance.
Explanation:
In manufacturing accounting, at the beginning of the period, manufacturing overheads (i.e. costs other than Direct Material and Direct Labor) has been applied to Work-in-process using a predetermined overhead rate. At the end of the period, if the manufacturing overhead account shows a debit balance, that signifies that overhead has been under-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>less </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period), and contrariwise if the manufacturing overhead account shows a credit balance, it means the overhead is over-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>more </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period). In any case this balance warrants an adjustment to close out the books, by transferring it to the cost of goods sold account.
Answer: c. It could allow real wages to downwardly adjust more easily.
Explanation:
When there is modest inflation, companies in the car manufacturing industry can simply decide not to increase nominal wages. This would lead to a fall in real wages as inflation would ensure that the nominal wages are less than they were worth before.
This decrease in real wages will allow the companies in the industry to reduce labor costs in real terms and become more competitive with the foreign manufacturers.
Answer:
B) $20,697.
Explanation:
For computing the accretion expense, first we have to determine the present value which is shown below:
Present value would be
= Annual cash flows × PVIF factor for five years at 10%
where,
Annual cash flows would be
= Probability × cash outflows + Probability × cash outflows + Probability × cash outflows
= 25% × $300,000 + 50% × $400,000 + 25% × $500,000
= $75,000 + $200,000 + $125,000
= $400,000
And, the PVIF would be 0.62092. Refer to the PVIF table
So, the present value would be
= $400,000 × 0.62092
= $248,368
Now the accretion expense would be
= $248,368 × 10% × 10 months ÷ 12 months
= $20,697
The 10 months are computed from March 1 to December 31 and we assume the books are closed on December 31
Answer
The correct answer is:
$16,600
Explanation:
The ending inventory is the total value of the inventory at hand, that was not sold for the year. To calculate this, we will subtract the total cost of goods sold from the total purchase. This is shown below:
Beginning inventory = $ 19,600
Purchased inventory = $ 233,000
Total inventory value in the year = $ 252,600
Cost of goods sold = $ 236,000
Therefore, Ending inventory = Total inventory value in the year - Cost of goods sold
= 252,600 - 236,000 = $16,600
The following is not a primary component of an internal control system <u>Control environment .</u>
<u />
The primary cause of inner controls is to assist safeguard an corporation and further its objectives. internal controls characteristic to limit risks and shield property, make certain accuracy of facts, sell operational efficiency, and inspire adherence to policies, rules, regulations, and legal guidelines.
Internal controls are techniques designed to help guard an enterprise and limit danger to its objectives. inner controls decrease risks and guard belongings, ensure accuracy of statistics, sell operational performance, and encourage adherence to policies, policies, policies, and laws.
Determining whether a specific internal manage machine is effective is a judgement because of an assessment of whether the five additives - manage surroundings, risk assessment, manage sports, information and communique, and tracking - are present and functioning.
Learn more about Internal controls here
brainly.com/question/26398073
#SPJ4
