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alekssr [168]
3 years ago
7

The primary purpose of the requirements analysis phase is to ________. eliminate obviously nonsensible projects before forming a

project development team identify the requisite skills needed in the it personnel assigned to the project determine and document the specific features and functions of the new system investigate how much similar projects have cost in the past
Business
1 answer:
gavmur [86]3 years ago
5 0
<span>The primary purpose of the requirements analysis phase is to determine and document the specific features and functions of the new system. It does not eliminate obviously nonsensible projects before forming a project development team. Identify the requisite skills needed or show personnel assigned to the project or investigates how much similar projects have cost in the past.</span>
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5. What is the net return on assets for a hotel that generated total revenue of $4,076,000 in 2006 based on total assets of $7,6
Kipish [7]

Answer:

2016 net return on assets is 3.88%

2015 net return on assets is 4.46%

Explanation:

The net return on  assets is a profitability ratio that compares net income of a business with the capital assets (fixed assets used in generating such net income,hence it is a comparative performance metric not an absolute like net income as it a profit figure might be misleading if not viewed viz-a-viz the amount of resources deployed to generating it.

net return on assets=net income/total assets:

2016:

net income is $298,300

total assets is  $7,694,748

Net return on assets=$298,300/ $7,694,748=3.88%

2015:

net income is $309,120

total assets is  $6,925,273

Net return on assets=$309,120/$6,925,273=4.46%

7 0
4 years ago
Suppose your company reports $210 of net income and $50 of cash dividends paid, and its comparative balance sheet indicates the
topjm [15]

Answer:

The Operating Activities Section of the Statement of Cash Flows, using the indirect method:

Net Income                                $210

Changes in working capital:

Accounts Receivable                 -100

Inventory                                      110

Salaries & Wages Payable           80

Net cash flow from operating $300

Explanation:

In preparing the operating activities section of the Statement of Cash Flows, two methods are used.  The direct method and the indirect method.

The indirect method starts with the net income as the base and converts the income into cash flow through the use of adjustments.  The net income is first adjusted with non-cash items (such as depreciation expense) as well as non-operating gains and losses.  The direct method only takes the operating cash transactions into account to produce the cash flow from operations.  However, it is required that the direct method must provide a reconciliation of net income to the net cash provided by operations.

4 0
3 years ago
Being a first mover in a market is advantageous for a firm because: Group of answer choices it may have an opportunity to free r
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

Being a first mover in a market is advantageous for a firm because:

it may gain advantage through proprietary technology.

Explanation:

First mover advantage is a concept used to call the advantage a certain business has by starting to profit from an industry or sector before anyone else. It provides the advantage of experience and learning. Therefore, they gain advantage through proprietary technology by developing it to increase the efficiency of their resources.

4 0
4 years ago
Describe at least two non-discretionary expenses that you expect to have at some point in your life.
ad-work [718]

Answer:

Non-Discretionary Expenses means payments made to third parties on account of: (a) mandatory payments of monthly debt service (but not payment of principal or interest at or after maturity) required under Loan Documents evidencing debt of the Venture or any Subsidiaries; (b) Emergency Expenses; (c) other non-

Explanation:

3 0
4 years ago
Suppose that the equation for the SML is Y = 0.05 + 0.07X, where Y is the average expected rate of return, 0.05 is the vertical
timurjin [86]

Answer:

Risk free interest rate is 5%

Y is 15.5% at a Beta of 1.5

X is 0.29 when Y is 7%

Explanation:

Risk free interest is 0.05 which 5% as given in the equation

The average expected return is given by Y

Y=0.05+0.07X

Since Beta is the same as X, when equals 1.5,Y is calculated thus

Y=0.05+0.07(1.5)

Y=0.05+0.105

Y=0.155

Y=15.5%

The value of Beta at an average return of 7% is computed thus:

7%=0.05+0.07X

where X is the unknown

0.07=0.05+0.07X

0.07-0.05=0.07X

0.02=0.07X

X=0.02/0.07

X=0.29

The scenario  illustrates that the Beta, which is the risk of investment and the Y , the expected average return are positively correlated.

6 0
3 years ago
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