Answer:
The correct answer is Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.
Explanation:
The Sarbanes Oxley Law was enacted in the United States with the purpose of monitoring companies that are listed on the stock exchange, preventing the valuation of their shares from being altered doubtfully, while their value is lower. Its purpose is to avoid fraud and bankruptcy risk, protecting the investor.
This law, beyond the local level, also involves all companies listed on the NYSE (New York Stock Exchange), as well as its subsidiaries.
This law arose in response to the financial scandals of large corporations, such as: Enron, Tyco International, WorldCom and Peregrine Systems, as these diminished the public's confidence in the accounting systems and, above all, in the audit.
Capitalism is indeed an economic system in which privately owned businesses and individuals attempt to make a profit in the free market. The aspects of private ownership of businesses and working for profit are essential factors of capitalism as a theory and also as it is practiced.
Answer:
2%
2.5%
1.67%
Explanation:
The yield can be computed using the yield formula which coupon payment divided by price.
The coupon payment=face value*coupon rate
face value is $1000
coupon rate is 2%
coupon payment=2%*$1000=$20
when price is $1000:
yield =$20/$1000=2%
when price is $800
yield=$20/$800=2.5%
when price is $1,200
yield =$20/$1,200=1.67%
In essence ,the lower the price the higher the yield as lower amount is invested in order to receive the same amount of annual coupon of $20
Individuals differ in risk aversion because of differences in income or wealth.
- Risk aversion is the propensity of people to choose outcomes with low uncertainty over those with high uncertainty, even when the average outcome of the latter is equal to or higher in monetary worth than the more definite event. This tendency is shown in both economics and finance.
- Risk aversion is the tendency to avoid danger. A risk-averse investor is one who prioritizes money preservation over the potential for a higher-than-average return. Price volatility and investment risk are the same.
- If someone would rather take the risk and maybe receive nothing than accept a definite payment (certainty equivalent) of less than $50 (for instance, $40), they are considered to be risk averse. If they have no preference between the wager and a specific $50 payoff, they are risk neutral.
Thus the correct answer is d.
Refer here to learn more about risk aversion: brainly.com/question/8394406
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