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Len [333]
3 years ago
9

The president and CFO of Spellman Transportation are having a disagreement about whether to use market value or book value weigh

ts in calculating the WACC. Spellman's balance sheet shows a total of noncallable $45 million long-term debt with a coupon rate of 7.00% and a yield to maturity of 6.00%. This debt currently has a market value of $50 million. The company has 10 million shares of common stock, and the book value of the common equity (common stock plus retained earnings) is $65 million. The current stock price is $22.50 per share; stockholders' required return, r s , is 14.00%; and the firm's tax rate is 40%. The CFO thinks the WACC should be based on market value weights, but the president thinks book weights are more appropriate. What is the difference between these two WACCs?a. 1.55%b. 1.72%c. 1.91%d. 2.13%e. 2.36%
Business
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Difference = 2.36% (Option e)

Explanation:

Formula:

WACC = Re*(E/V) + Rd*(D/V)*(1-t)

<u>Data (In Million)                  Book Value                 Market Value </u>

E = Equity                           $65.00                        $225.00 ($22.50 x 10)

D = Debt                             $45.00                        $50.00

V = Value = E + D               $110.00                      $275.00

Re = Equity Rate                14%                            14%

Rd = Debt Rate                   6%                              6%

T = Tax Rate                      40%                             40%

WACC Book Value:

WACC = 14%*(65/110) + 6%*(45/110)*(1-0.40)  

WACC = 8.27273% + 1.47273%

WACC = 9.75%

WACC Market Value:

WACC = 14%*(225/275) + 6%*(50/275)*(1-0.40)  

WACC = 11.45455% + 0.65455 %

WACC = 12.11%

Difference = 12.11% - 9.75 = 2.36% (Option e)

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If an agent injures a third party during the course of employment, to what extent should the employer be held liable? Under what
postnew [5]

Answer:

The employer will be held liable.

Explanation:

If the external agent brings harm or injury to a third party in the course of an employment, the employer is held liable. When a principal directs an agent to commit for a tort or if the principal is aware of the consequences of carrying the instructions of the agent could cause harm or injure the person, then the principal is liable.

It is called direct liability.

The liability for the intentional tort which is imputed to the principal when the agent acts to further the business of the principal.

The agent is personally liable under the following circumstances :

  •   Foreign principal
  • Agent signs the contract in his own name
  • Non-existent principal
  •  Principal cannot be sued:
  • Undisclosed principal

Example :

A credit card company hires a sales person and offers a company van to make sales in that area. The sales person uses the office van to official purposes. But one night, he drove the car to a friend's party and while coming he drove over a pedestrian. In this case, the owner of the company will not be held liable as the sales person uses the company van for his personal use while going out for party with his friends. While causing the accident, the sales person was not not using the office van for official purposes and was not tendering official duties at that time.

3 0
3 years ago
Last year Randolph Company had sales of $325,000 and a net income of $19,000, and its year-end assets were $250,000. The firm's
alexdok [17]

Answer:

13.82%

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Sales = $325,000

Net income = $19,000

Assets = $250,000

Total-debt-to-total-assets ratio = 45.0% = 0.45

Now,

Total asset turnover = Sales ÷ Total assets

= $325,000 ÷ $250,000

= 1.3

Profit margin = Net income ÷ Sales

= $19,000 ÷ $325,000

= 0.05846

Equity multiplier = 1 ÷ [ 1 - Debt to asset ratio]

= 1 ÷ [ 1 - 0.45 ]

= 1.818

thus,

ROE = Profit margin × Total asset turnover × Equity multiplier

= 0.05846 × 1.3 × 1.818

= 0.1382

or

= 0.1382 × 100%

= 13.82%

7 0
3 years ago
Smith Company reported pretax book income of $406,000. Included in the computation were favorable temorary differences of $51,20
masha68 [24]

Answer:

$3,604

Explanation:

Calculation for what Smith's deferred income tax expense or benefit would be:

Using this formula

Deferred income tax expense =(favorable temporary difference-unfavorable temporary difference)*Tax rate

Let plug in the formula

Deferred income tax expense =($51,200-$40,600)*21%

Deferred income tax expense =$10,600*34%

Deferred income tax expense =$3,604

Therefore Smith's deferred income tax expense or benefit would be:$3,604

8 0
3 years ago
After researching many different shoes, Chris narrows down his choice to these two. Which shoes are the best deal?
Ad libitum [116K]
The answer is b hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
For a multi-product company with a limited resource, company-wide net income will be maximized if A : fixed costs equal the doll
sesenic [268]

Answer:

D : production capacity is prioritized to the product with the highest unit contribution margin.

Explanation:

The poduct with the highest unit contribution margin is key to calculate the Gross Profit Margin .

"Gross profit margin analyzes the relationship between gross sales revenue and the direct costs of sales. This comparison forms the first section of the income statement. Companies will have varying types of direct costs depending on their business. Companies that are involved in the production and manufacturing of goods will use the cost of goods sold measure while service companies may have a more generalized notation.

Overall, the gross profit margin seeks to identify how efficiently a company is producing its product. The calculation for gross profit margin is gross profit divided by total revenue. In general, it is better to have a higher gross profit margin number as it represents the total gross profit per dollar of revenue. "

Reference: Beers, Brian. “Gross, Operating, and Net Profit Margin: What's the Difference?” Investopedia, Investopedia, 14 Sept. 2019

6 0
3 years ago
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