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Usimov [2.4K]
3 years ago
11

Tiffany buys a basket of watermelons on sale for $9 before tax. The sales tax is 9%.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nuetrik [128]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

the total price would be 9.81

Step-by-step explanation:

9% of 9 = 0.81

0.81+9=9.81

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How to change 0.393 into a fraction
lubasha [3.4K]
You could change 0.393 to a fraction by putting it over 1000
in this case put it over 0.393= 396/1000
the / is the fraction
it is 396 over 1000
7 0
3 years ago
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Six different colored dice are rolled. Of interest is the number of dice that show a one. In words, define the random variable X
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Six dice (each of a different color) are rolled. Since the number of times the 6 dice were rolled isn't stated, take it to be 1.

Hence, 6 dice are rolled at once for this experiment.

Of interest is the number of dice that show a "one". In other words, the variable in question (X) is:

The number of dots that show on the upward face of the rolled dice.

The values that X may take on are:

1  2  3  4  5  6

On average, how many dice would you expect to show a one?

One die.

How is this gotten? By finding the probability that a one or one dot appears when the 6 dice are rolled at once. Since there are 6 dice in number, and each die has the same 6 faces containing dots, the probability of getting a one is 1/6. In this case, one out of 6 dice is expected to show one dot.

Find the probability that all six dice show a dot in just one toss.

Logically, this probability is going to be very small! It is almost impossible for all 6 dice to land on the same face in just a single toss. In other words, expect many decimal places in the probability figure.

1/6 divided by 6  = 0.167/6  = 0.028 approximated to three decimal places.

This would also represent the probability that 2 dots, 3 dots, or any other number of dots appears on all dice in one toss!

Is it more likely (in this experiment) that 3 or 4 dice will show a one (a single dot)?

The answer is yes! It is more likely that 3 or 4 dice (instead of all 6) will show a one or will show the same number of dots.

Kudos!

7 0
3 years ago
If 1 inch is 500 miles, then 4 inches is how many miles?
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

2,000 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given:

1 inch=500 miles

This can be rewritten as:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}

This is representative of a unit rate, as we have a 1 in the denominator. To calculate the number of miles in 4 inches, simply multiply the unit rate by 4:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}*4=

\frac{2000 miles}{4 inches}

This can rewritten as:

4inches=2000miles

Therefore, there are 2,000 miles in 4 inches.

-

We can check our solution by simplifying the fraction \frac{2000 miles}{4 inches} by dividing both 2000 and 4 by 4 to see if we achieve the unit rate:

\frac{500 miles}{1 inch}

Since this is in fact the unit rate, our solution is correct!

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The table shows the price for different numbers of board games:
zlopas [31]

Answer:

We conclude that the price is 3.5 times the number of board games.

Hence, option B is true.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that when y varies directly with x, the equation is

y ∝ x

y = kx

k = y/x

where 'k' is called the proportionality constant.

From the table,

For the point (2, 7)

k = y/x

  = 7/2

  = 3.5

For the point (4, 14)

k = y/x

   = 14 / 4

   = 7/2

    = 3.5

For the point (5, 17.50)

k  = y/x

   = 17.5 / 5

   = 3.5

For the point (9, 31.50)

k  = y/x

   = 31.50 / 9

   = 3.5

From the above calculations, we computed that the value of the proportionality constant remains the same.

Thus, the table of numbers represents a proportional relationship.

Therefore, the equation becomes

y = kx

The price of 2 board game

y = 3.5 (2)

  = 7

The price of 4 board game

y = 3.5 (4)

  = 14

Therefore, we conclude that the price is 3.5 times the number of board games.

Hence, option B is true.

6 0
2 years ago
Hey bro's help me!!​
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

3x+10

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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