Answer:
The answer is option (A) Dr 4,800
Explanation:
Solution
From the given question, the prepaid insurance normally is having a debit balance.
When it is brought forward to next year, this GH₵ 2,400 has to be cancelled once by debiting to suspense account.
Also. it want 2400 to credit the balance in prepaid insurance ledger, it need or require to be credited and debited to suspense account with 2400 balance.
Now, this combined debit to suspense account will result to 4800 (2400 +2400).
Answer:
The correct option is A, market segmentation
Explanation:
Market segmentation is the process of dividing customer base into distinct groups based on age,income,level of education,personality,perception and so on.
The purpose of segmenting the markets is for the organization to satisfy the needs of these different groups based on their unique characteristics and to able to sell to them goods that best match their status.
The scenario here is that Gap Inc,has successfully been able to discover the right set of people that its casuals best match.
Answer:
The correct word for the blank space is: specific job; process.
Explanation:
The cost object represents the cost of an object or department for which that cost is assigned. For instance, the repairs department of a dealership is a cost object of the repairs employees and the repair supplies. Cost objects are usually traceable thus are treated as direct costs for accounting purposes.
Then, <em>the cost object of a job order is the specific job assigned</em>; <em>while the cost object of a process costing system is the process </em>itself.
Answer:
First option will be recommended.
Explanation:
To determine which option to be taken, we calculate the net present value each option generates. The option generating higher NPV should be recommended.
- Net present value of first option = Lump sum receipt = $150,000.
- Net present value of second option will be found by discounting cash flows at investing rate 12% and calculated as followed:
+ Present value of 20 equal annual payment of $14,000 + Present value of $60,000 paid in 20 years = (14,000/12%) x [ 1 - 1.12^(-20)] + 60,000/1.12^20 = $110,792.
As net present value of the first option is higher than the second option, first option will be recommended.
