1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
pickupchik [31]
3 years ago
12

Advanced European weaponry meant that

History
2 answers:
nevsk [136]3 years ago
7 0
A few hundred Europeans could over run massive native empires
Pie3 years ago
5 0

Advanced European weaponry allowed the Europeans to be able to defeat Indians with their technology, while negating most weapons that the natives had.

Europeans were able to win strategic wars by inflicting large amounts of damage, while taking on realitively lower amount, allowing the Europeans to overthrow empires.

hope this helps

You might be interested in
How did portugal come to claim the land later know as Brazil
harkovskaia [24]

<span>In 1492 Italian Spanish navigator Christopher Columbus reached the Americas and claimed the new lands for Castile. </span>
8 0
3 years ago
What big event happened in Russia during 1889?
Andru [333]
I read 1989 instead of 1889 when I answered this question I'm really sorry about that
6 0
3 years ago
Explain how the Persians were not like the Assyrians or the Babylonians. Give at least one example from each culture. must be 12
kumpel [21]
While the Persians did enforce some rather retrospectively horrid punishments specifically punishing the Egyptian aristocracy by selling there daughters into slavery and killing their sons it is important to remember that everything from a historical perspective is realities. <span>the Assyrians on one hand once invited its enemy's over for a feast and served them their own son's head on a platter. then proceeded to rip out the eyeballs allowing them to live the rest of their lives with the last sight being the head of their sons.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Changes made to the constitution in regards to voting rights in 1787
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

When it was signed in 1787, the Constitution had a preamble and seven main parts, called articles. The 15th Amendment— which was passed by Congress on February 26, 1869, and ratified on February 3, 1870 — guarantees the right to vote and guarantees that right cannot be denied based on race.

Explanation:

I hope that works for you

8 0
3 years ago
Why did plantation owners turn to enslaved africans as a labor force?
amm1812

Plantation owners turned to the enslaved Africans as a labor force because they were not paying them for their work, instead they were just providing shelter and food for them. Also, they had total control over them because they owned them, thus were able to make them work as much as they wanted and the slaves couldn't do anything about it.

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Congress and several a states have concurrent power o enforce this article during prohibition
    8·1 answer
  • Trail of Tears<br> 1.<br> In what present day state did the Trail<br> of Tears begin?
    13·1 answer
  • Why did gender divisions of labor emerge during the industrial revolution?
    5·1 answer
  • A woman named Harriet miller comes before a judge in a pre-trial hearing she she's charged with stealing thousands of dollars sh
    14·1 answer
  • What was the significance of the colonial victory at Crown Point?
    14·2 answers
  • How did the Second Continental Congress influence the conflict between the colonists and Britain?
    12·2 answers
  • What important precedents were established for the Federeal government?
    14·1 answer
  • Question 7
    10·1 answer
  • What are the powers of the lieutenant governor of Louisiana? Check all that apply.
    12·2 answers
  • Which political party (Federalist or Democratic-Republican) would be most likely to support the following policies and/or people
    5·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!