All categories

3 years ago

Please answer and explain how you received that answer, these are the three problems I had trouble with out of 18

Mathematics

1 answer:

Varvara68 [4.7K]3 years ago

5 0

9) x.14 = 6.26 ==> 14x=156 ==> x=11.1

12) OAB = Right Triangle : (27+24)² = 24² + AB² (Pythagoras)
==> 51² =24² + AB² ==> 2,601 = 576 + AB² ==> AB² = 2,601 - 576 = 2,025
==> AB² = 2015 AND AB =√2025 = 45
Sorry I can't read the last page

You might be interested in

In a given population, the percent of people with blue eyes is 32%. If 17 people from that population are randomly selected, wha

34kurt

Answer: a

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

30jk in expanded form ????

laila [671]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The expanded form of 30 is 30+ 0. 2. How can write a 30 number in expanded fraction form? In the expanded fraction form, you can write 30 as (3 x 10) + (0 x 1).

8 0

3 years ago

Many stores run "secret sales": Shoppers receive cards that determine how large a discount they get, but the percentage is revea

Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

it makes the most senses the lower the discount the higher the chance

7 0

3 years ago

Plz help with 1 through 6 show ur work

NeX [460]

1. 5×10×7= 350
2. 12×6×8=576
3. 4.2×3.5×2=29.4
4. 1.1×1.5×2.6=4.29
5.4×3×5= 60
6. 4.1×2.6×5.1=47.97

5 0

3 years ago

One concern of a gambler is that she will go broke before achieving her first win. Suppose that she plays a game in which the pr

Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

The probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.

Step-by-step explanation:

The gambler commences with $30, i.e. she played 3 games.

Let X = number of games won by the gambler.

The probability of winning a game is, p = 0.10.

The random variable X follows a Binomial distribution, with probability mass function:

$P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x};\ x=0, 1, 2,...$

Compute the probability of exactly one winning as follows:

$P(X=1)={3\choose 1}(0.10)^{1}(1-0.10)^{3-1}\\=3\times0.10\times0.81\\=0.243$

Thus, the probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.

4 0

4 years ago