Hello from MrBillDoesMath!
Answer:
.08%
Discussion:
Let the percent be denoted "p". Then
2000 * p% = 160 => ( as p% = p/100)
2000* p/100 = 160 =>
20p = 160 =>
p = 8 or .08%
Regards,
MrB
Answer:
<em>In the second group the individual members received a larger fraction of the prize money</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Division by Sharing</u>
A certain amount M can be evenly split among n parties by performing a division M/n.
The first group of six friends earned $45 and they split it evenly, i.e. the same amount goes to each member. Each of them received $45/6= $7.50 apiece.
The second group of four friends won the second-place prize of $35 and they split it evenly also. Each member received $35/4=$8.75.
By comparing both numbers, we see that 8.75 is a bigger fraction of 35 that 7.50 is of 45. Each member from the second-place price will receive more money than the first group.
We can conclude in the second group the individual members received a larger fraction of the prize money
(1.082)^15(500)=$ 1,630.71. I do not see this figure as an option, but it is the correct response.
(X+3)^2+(y-2)^2= 16
The formula is (x-h)^2+(y-k)^2=r^2
