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ivolga24 [154]
3 years ago
15

Which two US presidents can be considered Progressive?

History
1 answer:
timama [110]3 years ago
3 0
I think it’s Theodore Roosevelt and Woodrow Wilson but I’m not 100% sure
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Accept bribes to allow oil companies to drill on federally owned land
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2 years ago
did the korean war serve any purpose? was part or all of it just a mistake? what were the "results"? how much responsibility sho
Studentka2010 [4]

The Korean war had a purpose but it had largely failed.

Explanation:

Truman can and cannot be blamed for the war as he had formulated this policy of attacking in per preemptive measures to control the spread of communism that had plagued the US for so long.

At the same time the nature of the policy was such that it has led to the development of the US in certain senses.

So, as all things in history it is a two way thing and often based around the perspective one has of things.

The war itself was not a success in terms of containing communism as North Korea was out of grasp.

7 0
3 years ago
Which group did the Ottoman Empire conquer first?
Phoenix [80]

Answer:  Osman I, a leader of the Turkish tribes in Anatolia, founded the Ottoman Empire around 1299. The term “Ottoman” is derived from Osman's name, which was “Uthman” in Arabic. The Ottoman Turks set up a formal government and expanded their territory under the leadership of Osman I, Orhan, Murad I and Bayezid I.

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
What was one reason spain sponsored the first voyage of columbus to the west
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

Keep this little phrase in mind: <u>gold, glory, and God.</u> In that order. The reason the Catholic monarchs Isabella and Ferdinand sponsored Columbus was

  • <u>gold.</u> They wanted to get rich off of gold, which would enable them to increase their wealth and trading power as per the economic system of mercantilism.
  • <u>glory.</u> They wanted their names to be famous. Two of the islands that Columbus saw were named after the two rulers (Isabela Island and Fernandina).
  • <u>God.</u> They were highly Catholic (remember the Spanish Inquisition?) and they wanted to spread that, in theory, to the primitive natives.

7 0
3 years ago
How were kings in both England and France able to increase their power over the nobles
Sindrei [870]

Answer:

How were kings in both England and France able to increase their power over the nobles

Explanation:

<em><u>The kings of England and France increase their power over the nobles</u></em> <u>in the middle of the Authoritarian Monarchy</u>: <u>The authoritarian monarchy could be defined as that in the king holds political power</u>, <u><em>although it has to maintain the privileges of some groups, not the nobility But yes of the bourgeoisie, enriched by trade, </em></u><u>and the basis of the economic power of the kings.</u>

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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