Answer:
the major difference between the way that the Spanish and French treated "their" Indians was based on the respective economic and societal needs to the two European nations.... By contrast, the Spanish used the Indians economically and integrated them into the colonial society.
(according to Google)
Answer:
true
Explanation:
it was not becouse of there race tho can i be brainlest
The term Woodland Indians was created in 1932 to describe a prehistoric culture that was significantly different than the nomadic Archaic Indians that roamed the eastern third of the North American Continent from 6000 B. C. to about 1000 B. C. It is the third and final general cultural description applied to native people prior to the formation of tribes, the final stage of development of these prehistoric people. Were the Woodland Indians historic<span> or </span>prehistoric<span>? Woodland Indians, as with all later Indian nations until the Cherokee, were prehistoric. The Cherokee adopted a written language in 1820, making them a historic tribe from that time on.
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i hope this helps
These changes impacted the way we teach and see history for years to come. In events such as the Murder of Nanking (committed by Japan), the horrors committed in the Polish termination camp (Auschwitz), and the Holocaust Twin experiment, many people were murdered and faced many cruelties. Now we study the works of Hitler, Stalin, and many others like them with caution. Though some people still believe that what Hitler did was correct (neo-nazis) or that the entire holocaust was completely made up (this is a false statement), it was a real event and had cause many people pain, and lots of people lost loved ones.
America today uses some of the same technology/techniques that were founded in the gilded age. Another similarity is also that social statuses still have a big role in people’s lives.
