Answer: 
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Work Shown:
Part 1

Part 2

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Explanations:
- There are quite a bit of steps. I decided to break things into two parts.
- The goal is to get x all by itself on its own side, which is why I subtracted (x-n)/n from both sides in part 1, step 2. I also subtracted p from both sides.
- Afterward, I gave each fraction the LCD mn. I multiplied top and bottom of the first fraction by n/n. I did a similar operation to the second fraction, but with m instead.
- From there, we distribute and simplify. The mn terms cancel on the left side numerator (second step of part 2).
- The n≠m is there to prevent the denominator (n-m) from being zero. We cannot divide by zero.
- If the formulas don't properly display, then you might have to refresh the page.
Answer:
the answer is 37.7 so the point closest to 40.
Step-by-step explanation:
9514 1404 393
Answer:
r = 0
r = -7
Step-by-step explanation:
There is no x in the equation, hence there are no x-intercepts.
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If we assume you want the values of r that satisfy the equation, the zero product property tells you they will be the values that make the factors zero.
The factors are r and (r+7).
The factor r is zero when ...
r = 0
The factor (r+7) is zero when ...
r +7 = 0 ⇒ r = -7
The "x-intercepts" are r=0 and r=-7.
Answer:
The magnetic field is
Direction is inward
Step-by-step explanation:
The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image
From the question we are told that
The radius of BC is 
The radius of DA is 
The length of CD is 
The length of AB is 
The current is 
The magnetic field is mathematically represented as

![B = \frac{\mu_o I}{4 \pi } [ \frac{\theta_{DA}}{r_{DA}} + \frac{\theta_{BC}}{r_{BC}}+ \frac{\theta_{CD}}{r_{CD}}+\frac{\theta_{AB}}{r_{AB}}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cmu_o%20I%7D%7B4%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BDA%7D%7D%7Br_%7BDA%7D%7D%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BBC%7D%7D%7Br_%7BBC%7D%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BCD%7D%7D%7Br_%7BCD%7D%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BAB%7D%7D%7Br_%7BAB%7D%7D%5D)
Where

Where 

so
![B = \frac{\mu_o I}{4 \pi } [ \frac{\frac{2\pi}{3} }{0.20} - \frac{\frac{2\pi}{3}}{0.30}}+ \frac{0}{0.10}+\frac{0}{0.10}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cmu_o%20I%7D%7B4%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cfrac%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7B3%7D%20%7D%7B0.20%7D%20-%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cfrac%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7B3%7D%7D%7B0.30%7D%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B0%7D%7B0.10%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B0%7D%7B0.10%7D%5D)

The direction is into the page
This because the magnitude of the magnetic field due to arc BC whose direction is outward is less than that of DA whose direction is inward
This is because according to Fleming's Left Hand Rule the direction of current is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field so since current in arc BC and DA are moving in opposite direction their magnetic field will also be moving in opposite direction
So in order to solve you must first combine like terms.
-2y + 2y + 3 = 3
0 + 3 = 3
Subtract 3.
0 = 0
The answer is infinate solution because both numbers are the same.
I hope this helps love! :)