Answer:
D. A Fed sale of bonds to brokers and banks.
Explanation:
The sale of bonds to banks and brokers is a contractionary open market policy. Its objective is to check inflation by slowing down the rate of economic growth. When the Fed offer bonds to the markets at a higher interests rate, banks will prefer to buy the bonds than lending out money to household and firms.
Producers rely on banks to fund their operations. If they cannot obtains loans for production and growth, their output decreases. A decrease in output results in reduced exports. Low production of US goods means a reduced supply to the international market. It means international buyers will be competing for fewer US products. As the markets compete for the few available products, they push the demand for the dollar up, causing it to appreciate in value.
If the midlands pencil corporation has issued several different debt securities, an investor would expect the lowest income stream from <u>convertible debentures.</u>
Convertible bonds have many positive attributes for investors, but the main drawback is that investors accept lower interest rates in exchange for these benefits.
Convertible debentures are fixed rate debentures that pay interest but can be converted into a specified number of ordinary shares or shares. Conversion of a bond into equity may occur at certain times during the life of the bond and is generally at the discretion of the bondholder.
Due to this logic, a convertible bond allows the issuer to indirectly sell its common stock at a price higher than its current price. From a buyer's perspective, convertible bonds are attractive because they offer the opportunity to capture the potentially high yields associated with equities, but also the security of bonds.
Learn more about bonds here brainly.com/question/9817093
#SPJ4
Answer:
$9,000 unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total fixed overhead variance is shown below:
= Actual fixed overhead costs - Budgeted fixed overhead
where,
Budgeted fixed overhead is $360,000
And, the Actual fixed overhead cost is computed below:
= Actual fixed overhead × Actual production ÷ budgeted production
= $360,000 × 11,700 units ÷ 12,000 units
= $351,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $351,000 - $360,000
= $9,000 unfavorable
<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>
SC's Depreciable assets for the purpose of financial reporting and income taxes were $40000 and $33000 respectively. Its taxable income is$97000.Temporary difference will be there because of Depreciation.
Temporary Difference=Financial reporting Dep-Income tax depreciation
=40000 minus 33000
=7000
Pretax financial income=taxable income+Temporary Difference
=97000+7000=$104000
Deferred tax liability=7000 multiply 30%=2100
Income tax expense=104000 multiply 30%=31200
Income tax payable=97000 multiply 30%=29100
Dec 31 Income Tax ExpensenA/C Dr. $31200
To Income Tax Payable A/C $ 29100
To Deferred Tax Liability A/C $ 2100
<u>
Answer:b
</u>
Slatter Company
Partial Balance Sheet
December 31, 2013
Noncurrent Liabilities
Deferred Tax Liability $2100
