Answer:
The probability is 1.
Explanation:
Despite that the he distribution is positively skewed, the distribution of sample means of one-bedroom apartments will still be a a normal distribution based on Central Limit Theorem.
Since we have
μ = mean = 2200
SD = standard deviation = 250
n = sample size = 50
Therefore,
Standard error = SD ÷ √n
= 250 ÷ √50
= 250 ÷ 7.07106781186548
= 35.3553390593274 approximately 35.36
Standardize xbar to z = (xbar - μ) ÷ (SD ÷ √n)
Therefore, we have:
P(xbar > 1,950) = P(z > (1,950 - 2200) ÷ 35.36)
= P(z > - 250 ÷ 35.36)
= P(z > -7.07) = 1
Therefore, the probability of selecting a sample of 50 one bedroom apartments is 1 which can be said to be certain.
Answer:
The board most likely will not be held responsible.
Explanation:
The board of directors can legally defend themselves based on the Business Judgement Rule. This rule in contained in the <u>Corporations Act of 2001 - Section 180.</u> It states that any decision made in regards to the business operations should be:
- In good faith and not based on personal gain
- In the best interest of the corporation
- Based on information that supports the decision
For this particular case, the board based their decision on <em>previous market research</em> that received positive feedback.
Answer:
Required rate of return = 10.75%
Explanation:
<em>The value of a stock using the dividend valuation model, is the present value of the expected future dividends discounted at the required rate of return. The required rate of return is the cost of equity
</em>
The model is represented below:
P = D× (1+g)/ ke- g
Ke- cost of equity, g - growth rate, p - price of the stock
This model can used to work out the cost of equity, as follows:
Ke = D× (1+g)/p + g
Ke = (1.48× 1.05)/27 + 0.05
Ke= 0.107555556
Required return = 0.1075 × 100 = 10.75
Required rate of return = 10.75%
Answer:
First option will be recommended.
Explanation:
To determine which option to be taken, we calculate the net present value each option generates. The option generating higher NPV should be recommended.
- Net present value of first option = Lump sum receipt = $150,000.
- Net present value of second option will be found by discounting cash flows at investing rate 12% and calculated as followed:
+ Present value of 20 equal annual payment of $14,000 + Present value of $60,000 paid in 20 years = (14,000/12%) x [ 1 - 1.12^(-20)] + 60,000/1.12^20 = $110,792.
As net present value of the first option is higher than the second option, first option will be recommended.
Answer:
$5,360
Explanation:
The adjusting entry is shown below:
Bad debt expense $5,360
To Allowance for doubtful debts $5,360
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
For recording this we debited the bad debt expense as it increased the expenses and credited the allowance for doubtful accounts as it reduced the assets
The computation is shown below:
= $91,000 × 5% + $810
= $5,360
