A good reason why partners should spell out the details of their partnership arrangements in writing is to override any unsuitable provisions of the Partnership .
<h3>Why is it necessary for partners to spell out the details of their
partnership arrangements ?</h3>
It is necessary because with written agreement all the terms that is related to the agreement can be stated and the copy can be given to the two partners.
In this case, good reason why partners should spell out the details of their partnership arrangements in writing is to override any unsuitable provisions of the Partnership .
Learn more about partnership arrangements at
brainly.com/question/25012970
#SPJ1
Yes, I know there are many who feel that uniforms are pointless due to them having a closet full of other clothes so they shouldnt have to wear the same uniform but, wearing uniforms will prevent further bullying on what kids come to school dressed in. Honestly, wearing a uniform will make it better for anyone who is teased based on fashion sense.
Really, it has nothing to with gender in my opinion, it's just whoever you find easiest to talk to probably has a similar personality to you. They may be a girl or they may not.
'Although concrete operational thinkers might succeed on the balance-a-scale test of formal reasoning, they are less likely to do so because of their reliance on <u>trial and error</u>.
An operational definition is a definition that defines the precise way wherein a variable is measured. Giving the steps used in defining each variable allows others to evaluate and potentially mirror research take a look at.
Your operational definitions describe the variables you may use as indicators and the processes you will use to study or degree them. You need an operational definition due to the fact you can not measure something without one, regardless of how top your conceptual definition is probably.
An operational definition of a variable is the set of approaches used to measure or control it. a great operational definition is obviously sufficient so that an unbiased researcher ought to use the same technique (mirror the studies) and get identical outcomes.
Learn more about operational here brainly.com/question/1266027
#SPJ4
Answer:
No. The Romans did not commit genocide against the Gauls
Explanation:
Julius Ceaser's Gallic Wars occurred from 58 to 51 B.C. Gaul was invaded by the Romans mainly for money. Ceaser needed to pay off his debts and also wanted to keep making a name for himself, thus invading Gaul was the answer. He didn't care about the people who lived there nor did he ever discuss their culture, nationality, or race as being a reason for invading. If we look at the definition of genocide it's "the deliberate or systematic extermination of a national, racial, political, or cultural group." Again, Ceaser never listed any of those as being a reason for invasion; all he needed was victories.
