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iVinArrow [24]
3 years ago
13

In the late 1990s, the United States experienced very high GDP growth, record low unemployment rates, and virtually nonexistent

inflation. Based on the conclusions of the AD/AS model, this combination of good economic results can be explained by a __________.
a. rightward shift of the aggregate demand.
b. leftward shift of the aggregate demand.
c. rightward shift of the short- or long-run aggregate supply.
d. leftward shift of the short- or long-run aggregate supply.
Business
1 answer:
Kipish [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

d. leftward shift of the short- or long-run aggregate supply.

Explanation:

A smaller labor force would usually lead to a reflection in the leftward shift in both short run aggregate supply and potential GDP ( gross domestic product) of the economy. What this means is it would lead to a lower level of equilibrium with GDP ( gross domestic product) and a higher price level.

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If neuron L is repeatedly stimulated very rapidly, what change would you expect in the postsynaptic neuron
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If neuron L is repeatedly stimulated very rapidly, The expected changes in the postsynaptic neuron are: "(Option D). See the attached for the full question.

<h3>What is the postsynaptic neuron?</h3>

Postsynaptic neurons are the neurons that take receipt of the triggers from the synapse. The synapse is responsible for generating and transmitting electrical signals.

Thus, it is right to state that if neuron L is repeatedly stimulated very rapidly, The expected changes in the postsynaptic neuron are:

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  • Movement farther away from the threshold.

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8 0
2 years ago
16. GDP Growth Consider the following data on U.S. GDP: Year GDP (Billions of current dollars) (Billions of 2009 dollars) 2011 1
dmitriy555 [2]

Answer:

The percentage change in nominal GDP from 2013 to 2014 was 4.29%

The percentage change in real GDP from 2012 to 2013 was 1.48%

The percentage change in real GDP from 2012 to 2013 was higher than the percentage change in real GDP from 2011 to 2012. FALSE

Explanation:

In order to calculate this we just have to calculate the percentages with a rule of thirds:

\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}

To calculate the first one we use the nominal GDP which is the GDP with the current market value:

\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{16,663.2}{100}= \frac{17,348.1 }{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(17,348.1}{16,663.2} \\x=4.29%

To calculate the change in real GDP we use the values adapted to a pre-agreed monetary value, in this case the dollar at 2009:

\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{15,354.6}{100}= \frac{15,583.3}{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(15,583.3}{15,354.6} \\x=1.48%

To calculate the 2011 to 2012 we insert the values:

\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{ 15,020.6}{100}= \frac{15,354.6}{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(15,354.6}{ 15,020.6} \\x=2.22%

So with this we know that it is wasn´t higher the percentage change from 2012-2013, than that of 2011-2012

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Answer:

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