Answer:
- 5,000 watches : $150,000 loss
- 20,000 watches: $60,000 (Loss)
- Break-even point = 30,000 units
- if the selling price rises to 32 = break even points descends to 10,588 units
- If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26 , the break even point goes back to 30,000units.
Explanation:
Hi, to answer this question we have to apply the next formula:
Profit = Revenue -cost
Where the revenue is equal to the units sold (x) multiplied by the selling price,
R = 21 x
And cost is equal to the sum of the fixed and variable costs.
C = 15x + 1800
So:
P = 21x-(15x +180,000)
P = x ( 21-15)- 180,000
P = 5000(21-15)-180,000
P = 5000(6) -180,000
P= 30,000-180,000
P=-$150,000 (loss , since is negative )
P = 20,000(6) -180,000
P = 120,000-180,000
P=-$60,000 (Loss)
- To find the break even point:
R = C
21x = 15x + 180,000
21x-15x =180,000
6 x = 180,000
x = 180,000/6
x =30,000 units
- if the selling price rises to 32
32x = 15x + 180,000
32x-15x = 180,000
17x =180,000
x = 180,000/17
x = 10,588 units
It descends,
- If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26
32x = 26x+180,000
32x-26x = 180,000
6x = 180,000
x = 180,000/6
x =30,000
The break-even point comes back to 30,000 units.
(D) ask the callers name, number, and purpose of the call and tell him or her someone will call back in a few minutes.
The other answers do not look professional,as for answer D, the caller will feel you really care about him or her, since you have taken their contact detail and you have assured them someone will call them back shortly. It shows as a business you but your callers need first.
Answer and Explanation:
Since in the question it is mentioned that the account payable beginning balance is $250,000 and the ending balance of the account payable is $350,000 so here $100,000 different would rise the cash from operations
Therefore the same is to be considered as there is an increase in inflows of cash
So the difference would be rise the cash from operations
Answer:
the present value is $4,316.35
Explanation:
The computation of the present value of given cash flows is shown below:
Present value is
= Cash flows at year 1 ÷ (1 + rate of interest) + Cash flows at year 2 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^2 + Cash flows at year 3 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^3 + Cash flows at year 4 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^4
= $880 ÷ 1.08 + $1,250 ÷ 1.08^2 + $1,510 ÷ 1.08^3 + $1,675 ÷ 1..08^4
= $4,316.35
Hence, the present value is $4,316.35
Answer:
d. The present value of perpetuity varies directly with the annual repayments.
Explanation:
A perpetuity is a security or bond which pays a fixed amount of cash flow at a fixed interval forever. So the amount it pays stays the same and it keeps paying for ever. The formula to find the present value of a perpetuity is
Cash flow of perpetuity/Interest Rate
So if the annual payment is 100 and the interest rate is 5% the present value of the annuity is
100/0.05=2,000
If we keep the interest rate the same at 5% and increase the cash flow by 100 to 200 the new present value of the perpetuity is
200/0.05=4,000
This proves that the present value of a perpetuity varies directly with the annual repayments or cash flow of perpetuity.
