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sp2606 [1]
3 years ago
10

Most recent work on the history of leisure In Europe has been based on the central hypothesis of a fundamental discontinuity bet

ween preindustrial and industrial societies. According to this view, the modern idea of leisure did not exist In medieval and early modern Europe: the modern distinction between the categories of work and leisure was a product of Industrial capitalism. Preindustrial societies had festivals (together with Informal and Irregular breaks from work), while industrial societies have leisure in the form of weekends and vacations. The emergence of leisure is therefore part of the process of modernization. If this theory is correct, there is what Michel Foucault called a conceptual rupture between the two periods, and so the v
Business
1 answer:
Ostrovityanka [42]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:should be noted that, first paragraph of the passage enlightens us on the difference between preindustrial and industrial society in Europe and how great was it to an extent that “the modern

distinction between the categories of work and leisure” (lines 4-5) cannot be reasonably applied to the former, which implies that there exists a discontinuity between the two periods.

Furthermore, the second paragraph argues that the discontinuity approach can accommodate historical data.

On a final note, the third paragraph admits that, while it is very useful in some aspects, this approach “can pose problems of its own” (line 25) and it then briefly describes these problems. All this points to Choice E as correct.

The word “dichotomy” as it appears in the last paragraph of the passage. One of the key claims there is that the dichotomy “reduces a great variety … to the simple formula” (lines 31-33). Therefore Choice C is correct.

More so, “Simple dichotomy” is also mentioned in line 26. The passage states that this dichotomy “remains of use in so far as it reminds us that the rise of industrial capitalism” (lines 28-29) was not just an economic phenomenon, but also a social and a cultural phenomenon. This points to Choice A as correct.

We should also not forget that, the main purpose of the passage is to discuss the idea of “the central hypothesis of a fundamental discontinuity between preindustrial and industrial societies” (lines 1-3) in terms of the development of the concept of leisure. Large volume of the passage is focused on demonstrating the usefulness of this hypothesis; nonetheless, the second part of the third paragraph mentions some “distortions” (line 31) that may result if the hypothesis is accepted. Therefore Choice B is correct. Choices A, D, and E are incorrect, as only one hypothesis/solution is discussed in the passage. Choice C is incorrect, as the passage does not mention that the “distortions” (line 31) caused by accepting the hypothesis are illusory

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Westsyde Tool Company is expected to pay a dividend of $1.50 in the upcoming year. The risk-free rate of return is 6%, and the e
lawyer [7]

Answer:

Return on company's stock = 15.6%

Explanation:

<u><em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM)</em></u><em> relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c</em>

Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)

E(r) =? , Rf- 6%, Rm- 14%, β- 1.2

E(r)  = 6% + 1.2× (14- 6)%

        = 6%  + 9.6%

         = 15.6%

Return on company's stock = 15.6%

7 0
3 years ago
Using the glossary will not help a reader develop better reading strategies true or false
Sidana [21]

When a reader uses their resources within the book to understand the book and how it is constructed, it helpes the reader develop better reading strategies. Using the glossary lets the reader identify and find information at a quicker rate which in turn, helps develop better reading strategies. Therefor, the answer is false, because the reader does develop better reading strategies when they use the glossary.

6 0
3 years ago
The demand curve faced by a perfectly competitive firm rev: _______
vivado [14]

Answer:

The answer is D.

Explanation:

The demand curve faced by perfectly competitive firm is horizontal. This means that if individual firm charges price above the market price, it will not sell anything.

The curve is the same as marginal revenue curve because change in total revenue from selling one more unit(marginal revenue) is the constant market price.

And it holds in perfect market that price equals marginal revenue (P=MR).

The correct option is D.

6 0
3 years ago
"A tenant offers to sign a lease paying a rent of $1,000 per month, in advance (i.e., the rent will be paid at the beginning of
belka [17]

Answer:

$47,500

Explanation:

Since the payment is made monthly in advance for the period of 5 years, therefore the present value of annuity formula shall be used for the purpose of calculating the Present value of lease, which is given as follow:

Present value of annuity=R+R[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i]

In the given question

R=Rent per month paid in advance=$1,000

i=interest compounded monthly=10%/12=0.83%

n=number of payments involved=(12*5)-1=59

Present value of annuity=1,000+1,000[(1-(1+0.83%)^-59)/0.83%]

                                        =$47,500

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Verizon Wireless has hired you as a consultant to determine what price it should set for calling services. Suppose
goldfiish [28.3K]

Answer:

The two optimal two part price that would be suggested to Verizon is Unit per Fee = $1 and Lump Sum fee or fixed fee = $99

Explanation:

Solution

For us fully maximize profit under two part price It should gives  that amount of wireless service at which P = MC and and also charge Lump sum fee or fixed fee equals to the consumers surplus that consumer will have.

Now,

marginal cost= MC  = 1 and P = 100 - 25Q.

Thus,

P = MC => 100 - 25Q = 1 => Q = 2

Then,

The Consumer surplus is the above area Price of  line which is (iP = 1) and below is the curve of demand

Now,

P = 100, When Q = 0 The Consumer surplus = (1/2)*base*height

= (1/2)*(100 - 1)*2 = 99

Therefore, Fixed fee or The Lump Sum fee = 99

However, the  Optimal two part pricing is denoted by:

The Unit per Fee = $1 and Lump Sum fee or fixed fee = $99

4 0
3 years ago
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