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inessss [21]
3 years ago
8

Developing the cash flow for each alternative in a study is a pivotal, and usually the most difficult, step in the engineering e

conomic analysis procedure. An integrated approach for developing cash flows includes three major components:
a. A work breakdown structure (WBS) definition of the project.
b. A cost and revenue structure that identifies all the cost and revenue elements involved in the study
c. Estimating techniques (models).

Required:
Discuss the concept of equivalence - if two cash flows (or a series of cash flows) are equivalent for a stated interest rate, and under what circumstances you would be willing to trade one for the other.
Business
1 answer:
Volgvan3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The concept of equivalence, also known as economic equivalence, describes the reduction of a series of cash inflows (benefits) and cash outflows (costs) to a single point in time, using a single interest rate, which enables the cash flows to be compared or equated.  This implies that while the amounts and timing of the cash flows (both inflows and outflows) may differ, an appropriate interest rate, factoring in the time value of money, will cause one set to be equal to the other.  Therefore, to establish economic equivalence, series of cash flows that occur at different points in time must be equalized using a single interest rate through present value calculations.

Explanation:

The concept of equivalence describes a combination of a single interest rate and the idea of the time value of money.  This combination helps to determine the different amounts of money at different points in time that are equal in economic value, such that a person would not hesitate to trade one for the other.

For example, if the interest rate is 10% in Year 1 and in Year 2 and you are to be paid $1,000 in Year 1, it will not make any difference to you if you are paid $1,100 in Year 2.  This is because, given the prevailing interest rate of 10%, the value you receive in Year 1 and Year 2 are equivalent.

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Hudson Co. reports the contribution margin income statement for 2015. Contribution Margin Income Statement For Year Ended Decem
inna [77]

Answer:

$60 per unit

Explanation:

The computation of the contribution margin per unit is shown below:

Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable expense per unit

= $240 per unit - $180 per unit

= $60 per unit

It shows a difference between selling price per unit and the variable cost per unit

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

7 0
3 years ago
To take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, an investor would 1) construct a zero-investment portfolio that will yield a sure
Alex_Xolod [135]

Answer:

Both statements I and III are correct.

Explanation:

<u>1.Construct a zero investment portfolio that will yield a sure profit </u>

<u> </u>

<u>3.Make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investments</u>

7 0
4 years ago
Select the correct answers. Which strategy would be most suitable for a company at the maturity stage of its product life cycle?
Sholpan [36]

Answer:

E decrease the product price

Explanation:

Maturity stage of the product is the stage where the product has already saturated in the market and sales begin to peak and slow down. Many companies will want to maintain this stage when it peaks but when the decline starts showing up it is a great challenge for them due to competition that cuts in from other companies.  so companies at maturity stage would want to adopt  the method of decreasing the price of the product in order  to fight off competition.

3 0
3 years ago
If a borrower provides collateral and fails to repay the loan,
MakcuM [25]
The correct option is  B.
In case of non repayment of loan, the lender can sell the collateral and used the proceeds to cover his losses.  A collateral is always in form of properties which are substantial in value, it is often requested that borrowers provide collateral in order to reassure lenders that they will pay up.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Piedmont Hotels is an all-equity firm with 48,000 shares of stock outstanding. The stock has a beta of 1.19 and a standard devia
user100 [1]

Answer:

The firm set as the required rate of return for the project is 14.732%

Explanation:

For computing the required rate of return, the following formula should be used which is shown below:

= Risk free rate of return + (Beta × market risk premium) + adjustment

where,

Risk free rate of return is 4.1%

Beta is 1.19

Market risk premium is 7.8%

Adjustment is 1.35%

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value wold be equal to

= 4.1% + (1.19 × 7.8%)+ 1.35%

= 4.1% + 9.28% + 1.35%

= 14.732%

The standard deviation is irrelevant. Therefore, it is not considered in the computation part.

Hence, the firm set as the required rate of return for the project is 14.732%

8 0
3 years ago
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