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Valentin [98]
4 years ago
8

Explain why rolle's theorem does not apply to the function even though there exist a and b such that f(a) = f(b). (select all th

at apply.) f(x) = cot x 2 , [π, 9π] there are points on the interval [a, b] where f is not continuous. none of these. there are points on the interval (a,
b.where f is not differentiable. f(a) does not equal f(b) for all possible values of a and b in the interval [π, 9π]. f '(a) does not equal f '(b) for any values in the interval [π, 9π].
Mathematics
1 answer:
frozen [14]4 years ago
5 0
The reason Rolle's theorem does not apply to the function cot x^2 on the given interval is that on the interval there are points where f is not continuous, and as such not differentiable either.
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