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Mathematics

1 answer:

gavmur [86]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: it will take 14 years

Step-by-step explanation:

A savings account is started with an initial deposit of $600. This means that the principal P is

P = 600

It was compounded annually. This means that it was compounded once in a year. Therefore,

n = 1

The rate at which the principal was compounded is 2.1%. So

r = 2.1/100 = 0.021

The duration of time that for which the money stayed in the account is t years. So

Time = t

The formula for compound interest is expressed as

A = P(1+r/n)^nt

Where

A = total amount in the account at the end of t years. Therefore,

a) the equation to represent the amount of money in the account as a function of time in years would be

A = 600 (1+0.021/1)^1×t

A = 600 (1.021)^t

b) the amount of time it takes for the account balance to reach $800 would be

800 = 600 (1.021)^t

Dividing both sides of the equation by 600, it becomes

1.33 = (1.021)^t

t = 14

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Explanation:

Let triangle ABC and triangle CDE form a bow tie such that
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- Segment AC and segment CD are the north sides
- Segment BC and segment CE are the bottom sides
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Moreover when we form our bowtie, point A is in the north side and point E is in the bottom sides and this implies that angle BAC and angle CED are alternate interior angles as shown in the attached figure.

Since it is given in the problem that alternating interior angle are congruent, angle BAC and angle CED are congruent.

Now, we have the following pairs of angles in triangle ABC and triangle CDE that are congruent:

- angle BAC and angle CED
- angle ACB and angle ECD

By AA Similarity theorem, when we have two pairs of congruent angles for two triangles, then the two triangles are similar. So, triangle ABC and triangle CDE are similar.

In similar triangles, the sides that are opposite to the congruent angles are proportional to each other. So,

$\frac{BC}{CD} = \frac{AC}{CE} 


$ (1)

Since $AC = 6, CD = 42, CE = 36, BC = x$ , we can substitute these values to equation (1). So, equation (1) becomes

$\frac{x}{42} = \frac{6}{36}$
$\frac{x}{42} = \frac{1}{6}$ (2)

SInce we are solving for x, we can multiply both sides of equation (2) by the denominator at the left side which is 42 so that

x = 42(1/6)
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