Question

Help please!!!!!!!!!!

Answer 1

Answer:

H. 1/9.

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a circle is calculated by solving for π$r^2$.

The smallest circle has an area of π$1^2$ = π * 1 = π.

The middle ring will then have an area of π$2^2$ - π = π * 4 - π = 4π - π = 3π.

The largest ring will then have an area of π$3^{2}$ - π$2^{2}$ = 9π - 4π = 5π.

5π + 3π + π = 9π

So, the probability of hitting the innermost circle will be π / 9π = 1 / 9.

Your answer is H. 1/9.

Hope this helps!