Answer:$27.78
Explanation:
Expected value of debt after one year = (40* .60)+(15*.40)
= 24 + 6
=$ 30
Current value of debt = Value at 1year / (1+r)^n
= 30/ (1+.08)^1
= 30 / 1.08
=$ 27.78
Answer:
A. long-term ability to generate sufficient cash to satisfy plant capacity needs, fuel growth, and to repay debt when due.
Explanation:
Solvency is defined as the long-term ability of a business the generate enough cash flow that will allow it to continue its operations and also to pay of its debt when due.
It is used as a measure of the financial health of the business.
A business with good solvency has a high probability of remaining in operation for the foreseeable future.
Answer:
the cost of Human Resources would be allocated to Machining is $480,000
Explanation:
The computation of the cost of Human Resources would be allocated to Machining is given below:
= Cost of the human resource × machining department ÷ (machining department + assembly department)
= $1,200,000 × 100 ÷ (100 + 150)
= $480,000
hence, the cost of Human Resources would be allocated to Machining is $480,000
Answer:
The correct answer is "Net present value"
Explanation:
The Net present value (NPV) commonly is used in projects and investments to analyze the profitability and compare it with other projects or investments to decide which is better.
Net Present Value (NPV) = Cash flow / (1 + discount rate) ^ number of time periods.
<span>If an economy has just suffered a serious recession, we can conclude that the unemployment rate is high. After the recession when the real gdp is expanding, we can safely assume that more workers are needed to produce the gdp, which means that the unemployment rate will drop.</span>
